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kondaur [170]
3 years ago
10

HELP ASAP PLEASE HELPPP MEEE

Mathematics
2 answers:
Svetlanka [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:A= -1.75, B= -0.75, C= -0.25, and D= 0.75

Step-by-step explanation:

dybincka [34]3 years ago
3 0
A=-1.75
b=0.75
c=-0.25
d=0.75
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What is the quantity of goods and services that sellers are willing and able to sell known as?
NARA [144]

The answer would be supply

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
AaBbCc x AaBbCc (use for all 3 questions) 1. What is the probability that this individual will: AABBcc 2. What is the probabilit
tankabanditka [31]

Answer: 1. P = 1/64

             2. P = 1/32

             3. P = 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

In genetics, an ofspring inherits one copy of an allele of each parent, which can be described in the tables below called Punnett Square:

For crossing Aa x Aa:

       A      a

A    AA   Aa

a    Aa    aa

For crossing Bb x Bb:

        B      b

B     BB    Bb

b     Bb    bb

For crossing Cc x Cc:

       C      c

C    CC    Cc

c     Cc     cc

We can separate them because they are assorted independently.

For offspring with <u>genotype</u> <u>AABBcc</u>, probability will be:

P(AA) = 1/4

P(BB) = 1/4

P(cc) = 1/4

As all three probabilities has to happen at the same time, it is a "E" rule:

P(AABBcc) = (\frac{1}{4}) (\frac{1}{4}) (\frac{1}{4})

P(AABBcc) = 1/64

Probability for the individual to be AABBcc is 1/64 or 1.56%.

<u>Genotype</u> <u>AaBBcc</u>:

P(Aa) = 2/4 = 1/2

P(BB) = 1/4

P(cc) = 1/4

P(AaBBcc) = (\frac{1}{2}) (\frac{1}{4}) (\frac{1}{4})

P(AaBBcc) = 1/32

Probability for the individual to be AaBBcc is 1/32 or 3.12%

<u>Genotype</u> <u>AaBbCc</u>:

P(Aa) = 1/2

P(Bb) = 1/2

P(Cc) = 1/2

P(AaBbCc) = (\frac{1}{2}) (\frac{1}{2}) (\frac{1}{2})

P(AaBbCc) = 1/8

Probability for the individual to be AaBbCc is 1/8 or 12.5%.

4 0
3 years ago
Va rog ajutati-ma cu exercitiile bifate
stellarik [79]
Sorry man I would help but I don’t understand the language :(
3 0
3 years ago
6^7 divided by 6^5= what? 36....got my answer
jok3333 [9.3K]

Yep, 36 is correct.

3 0
3 years ago
Commercial aircraft used for flying in instrument conditions are required to have two independent radios instead of one. Assume
Serga [27]

Answer:

We are given that Commercial aircraft used for flying in instrument conditions are required to have two independent radios instead of one.

The probability of failure of one radio = 0.0026

So, the probability of failure of both radio =0.0026 \times 0.0026=0.00000676

Now we are supposed to find  the probability that a particular flight will be safe with at least one working​ radio

A) the probability that a particular flight will be safe with at least one working​ radio = 1- 0.00000676=0.99999324

B)The usual rounding rule of three significant digits not work​ here because usual rounding rule of three significant digits makes it 1 which means that both radios are working properly.

C)Yes,this probability is high enough to ensure flight​ safety because it is close to 1

6 0
4 years ago
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