The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $400 (unfavorable)
solution
Fixed Overhead Volume Variance = Applied Fixed Overhead – Budgeted Fixed Overhead
Applied Fixed Overhead
= 4,000 units ×2.5 hrs per unit×$0.80 = $8000
and
Budgeted Fixed Overhead =10,500 hrs × $0.80 = $8400
Fixed Overhead Volume Variance = $8000- $8400 = $400 (unfavorable)
Option 1: PV = $400,000
Option 2: Receive (FV) $432,000 in one year
PV = FV(1/(1+i)^n), where i= 8% = 0.08, n = 1 year
PV = 432,000(1/(1+0.08)^1) = $400,000
Option 3: Receive (A) $40,000 each year fro 20 years
PV= A{[1-(1+i)^-n]/i} where, n = 20 years
PV = 40,000{[1-(1+0.08)^-20]/0.08} = $392,725.90
Option 4: Receive (A) $36,000 each year from 30 years
PV = 36,000{[1-(1+0.08)^-30]/0.08} = $405,280.20
On the basis of present value computations above, option 4 is the best option for Kerry Blales. This option has the highest present value of $405,280.20
Answer:
7.38%
Explanation:
Calculation to determine what would be AJC's new WACC and total value
Using this formula
WACC and total value=(Equity)(Required rate of return on equity)+(Debt)(1-Tax rate)(Required rate of return on debt)
Let plug in the formula
WACC and total value=(0.6)(0.095)+(0.4)(1-0.4)(0.07)
WACC and total value=0.057+0.0168
WACC and total value=0.0738*100
WACC and total value=7.38%
Therefore would be AJC's new WACC and total value is 7.38%
