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Molodets [167]
3 years ago
13

Can you help me is monomials​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
5 0

Section 2.4

-------------------------------------------------

8x^2y : 2x : 2y = 2x

This is because 8x^2y divided over 2x leads to 4xy. Dividing 4xy over 2y leads to 2x.

-------------------------------------------------

15x^6y^3 : 5y^2x^3 = 3x^3y

Note how 15 divided by 5 is 3

Also, x^6 divided by x^3 is x^3. You subtract the exponents.

Similarly, y^3 divided by y^2 is y^1 = y.

-------------------------------------------------

16y^5x^3z : -4zyx = -4y^4x^2

Divide the coefficients to get 16/(-4) = -4

The y terms divide to (y^5)/(y) = y^4. Subtract the exponents.

The x and z terms are handled the same way.

--------------------------------------------------

-8x^2 : 2x = -4x

We follow the same steps as before. This time -8/2 = -4 is the new coefficient. The x terms divide to (x^2)/x = x where x is nonzero.

---------------------------------------------------

-6xz : -2zx = 3

The coefficients divide to (-6)/(-2) = 3

The x and z terms cancel out when we divide them.

---------------------------------------------------

3y^2x : xy^2 = 3

The y^2x expression is the same as xy^2, so when we divide these terms they cancel.

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stealth61 [152]
4 x 7= 28

BTW no calculator. Did it in my head. Hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(5 x 6) - (5 x 1)= 5 x
levacccp [35]

Answer:

x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

(5 x 6) - (5 x 1)= 5 x

5x X 6-5x X 1=5x

30x-5 X 1X x=5x

30x-5x=5x

25x=5x

25x-5x=5x-5x

20x=0

20X/20 = 0/20

x=0

5 0
3 years ago
Find a value for x if 1/x > x
Ymorist [56]

Since x can't be zero (it sits at the denominator of the left hand side), let's split cases:

If x is positive

It this case, we can multiply both sides by x without changing the inequality sign:

\dfrac{1}{x} > x \iff 1 > x^2 \iff x \in (-1,1)

But since we're assuming that x is positive, we can only accept the numbers between 0 and 1.

If x is negative

It this case, in order to multiply both sides by x we have to change the inequality sign:

\dfrac{1}{x} > x \iff 1 < x^2 \iff x \in (-\infty,-1) \cup (1,\infty)

But since we're assuming that x is negative, we can only accept the numbers which are smaller than -1.

So, putting all the pieces together, we have that the solution is given by the following interval:

(-\infty, -1) \cup (0,1)

6 0
3 years ago
HELP ME ANSWER THIS PLZ!!!!!!
alukav5142 [94]

Answer:

25% off $60 = $15

15% off $60 = $9 - 10%= $0.90

Step-by-step explanation:

$60 divided by 4= 25 x 4 = 100 is the whole number

6 0
3 years ago
On Monday a team of street sweepers cleaned 2/5 of a city block. Tuesday, the team cleaned 4/5 as
otez555 [7]

Answer:

1 and 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{2}{5} + \frac{4}{5} = \frac{6}{5} or 1 \frac {1}{5}

8 0
2 years ago
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