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mart [117]
3 years ago
7

Two protein kinases, PK1 and PK2, work sequentially in an intracellular signaling pathway. You create cells that contain inactiv

ating mutations in the genes that encode either PK1 or PK2 and find that these cells no longer respond to a particular extracellular signal. You also create cells containing a version of PK1 that is permanently active and find that the cells behave as though they are receiving the signal even when the signal is not present. When you introduce the permanently active version of PK1 into cells that have an inactivating mutation in PK2, you find that these cells also behave as though they are receiving the signal even when no signal is present.
Answer the following question in the space give.
A. From these results, does PK1 activate PK2, or does PK2 activate PK1? Explain your answer.
Biology
1 answer:
DiKsa [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is "PK1 activates PK2"

Explanation:

All enzymes were required again for the transmission of a signal. If Pk1 is continuously active, pk2 will no longer be required, as per my theory, can trigger pk1, therefore the cells were if they amplify the message even when they're not active. But since both enzymes require regular copies together for transduction, pk2 is simple and pk1 requires to also be activated.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

Primers:

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Primer removal:

After replication, these short fragments of RNA are removed to replaced with DNA from the newly synthesized DNA strand.

Reason for primer removal:

This is because of their uracil nucleotide which is absent in DNA. Instead of Uracil DNA contains Thymine nucleotide.

Best Answer:

Because It contains Uracil (U) instead of Thymine (T).

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