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2 years ago

Put the operations to simplify the expression in the correct order.

Mathematics

1 answer:

4vir4ik [10]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First multiply 5*9=45

Next subtract 15=30

Then Add 82 to 30=112

Last subtract 70 from 112=42

SO you get 42

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Brent biked 800 meters on Friday. On Saturday, he biked 3 kilometers. On Sunday, he biked 2 kilometers, 600 meters. How many

DochEvi [55]

Answer:

333

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first

Tomtit [17]

Answer:

$P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

$P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

$P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}$

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

$P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0

3 years ago

Alfonso is 8 years older than Ashley. Five years ago Alfonso was three times as old as Ashley. How old is Ashley now?

Pavel [41]

Answer: 9 years

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the present age of Ashley be x.

Then the present age of Alfonso =x+8

Five years ago,

Ashley's age = x-5

Alfonso's age = x+8-5 = x+3

According to the question,

$x+3=3(x-5)\\\Rightarrow\ x+3=3x-15\\\Rightarrow\ 3x-x=3+15\\\Rightarrow\ 2x=18\\\Rightarrow\ x=\frac{18}{2}\\\Rightarrow\ x=9$

Hence, the present age of Ashley =9 years

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

(a) 3n – 11 > 5n – 18

Bad White [126]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Bringing like terms on one side

-11 + 18 > 5n - 3n

-7 > 2n

-7/2 > n

7 0

2 years ago

4. Calculate Karl Pearson's Coefficient of Correlation X 43 44 46 40 44 42 45 42 38 40 42 57. Y 29 31 19 18 19 27 27 29 41 30 26

larisa86 [58]

Answer:

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6 0

2 years ago