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Elodia [21]
3 years ago
13

A machine operates with the following production cycle: 34 minutes of setup, 70 minutes of production. While in production, the

machine produces 3 parts per minute. What is the capacity of the machine in parts per minute
Business
1 answer:
Lyrx [107]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The capacity of the machine is 3 parts per minunte

Explanation:

First calculate the total time

Total time = Setup time + Production time

Total time = 34 minutes + 70 minutes

Total time = 104 minutes

Calculate the total units

Total Units = Production per minute x Total Time

Total Units = 3 parts per minutes x 104 minutes

Total Units = 312 parts

Now calculate the parts per minute

Parts per minute = Total Units / Total Time

Parts per minute = 312 parts / 104 minutes

Parts per minute = 3 parts per minunte

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Star Corp. had the following accounts and balances in its general ledger as of December 31:
Alex

Answer:

=$ 25,500

Explanation:

cash equivalents will be petty cash + cash at bank

= 500+20,000+5000

=$ 25,500

Cash or cash equivalent refers to assets held in the form of cash or can easily convert into cash in less than 90 days. Examples of cash include petty cash, cash in hand, cash in the bank, and debt securities whose maturity is within 90 days. Cash or cash equivalent appears at the top on the list of assets in a balance sheet.

Marketable debt securities are short-term to bond issued by a corporation and held by another company. They are listed as a current asset if they are to be sold within one year to long term investment if they are expected to last longer. Marketable equity securities are capital instruments. They are listed as current assets if they are to be liquidated in one year or long term investment if longer.

8 0
3 years ago
If a bank decides that it wants to hold​ $1 million of excess​ reserves, what effect will this have on checkable deposits in the
Alja [10]

Answer:

C. Checkable deposits decline by $10 million.

Explanation:

The banks must keep a reserve of money at Central Banks, the amount is defined by the reserve ratio, 10% in this case, but the banks could keep an extra reserve of money at Central Banks, in this case it's $ 1 million, so, if the bank decides to keep that reserve it means will be less money available to checkable deposit in the same amount.

When the banks keeps reserve by his own will, the required reserve ratio is not applicable to the amount, is the same situation as if we want to keep our money in the bank, for banks, they keep money in Central Banks.

hoping having been clear.  

7 0
3 years ago
The relationship between the price of a good or service and the quantity demanded of that good or service described by the law o
Klio2033 [76]

This relationship described between the price and the quantity demanded is known as the <u>Price Elasticity of Demand (PED). </u>

<h3>What is the Price Elasticity of Demand?</h3>
  • It is a measure that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded of it.
  • Shows how sensitive quantity demanded is to a change in price.

When the PED is less than 1, it means that a change in price doesn't affect the quantity demanded as much. When it is more than 1, a change in price will lead to an even higher change in quantity demanded.

In conclusion, this is the Price Elasticity of Demand.

Find out more on PED at brainly.com/question/9235198.

8 0
2 years ago
Presented below are three independent situations:
Blababa [14]

Answer:

Explanation:

a)

June 30, 2018

Dr Bonds Payable $250,000

Dr Loss on Redemption of bonds $25,500

    Cr Discount on Bonds Payable $20,500

    Cr Cash $255,000

Supporting calculations:

Discount on Bonds Payable = 250,000 -  229,500 = $20,500

Cash = $250,000*102/100 = $255,000

Loss on redemption of bonds = $255,000+$20,500-$250,000 = $25,500

b)

June 30, 2018

Dr Bonds Payable  $200,000  

Dr Discount on Bonds Payable $3,500

    Cr Gain on Bond Redemption  $9,500

    Cr  Cash                                             $194,000

Supporting calculations:

Discount on Bonds Payable = 200000-196500 = $3500

Cash = 200000*97% = $194,000

Gain on Bond Redemption = $200,000 + $3,500 - $194,000 = $9,500

c)

31 Dec

Dr Bonds Payable $30,000  

    Cr Common Stock  $6000

    Cr Paid in capital in excess of par-Common Stock $24000

Common Stock = 30000/1000*$5*40 shares = 6,000

4 0
3 years ago
Gates Co. purchased machinery on January 2, 2005, for $440,000. The straight-line method is used and useful life is estimated to
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

b. $34,500

Explanation:

For computing the depreciation expense for 2011, first we have to do the following calculations which are shown below:

Depreciation expense under Straight-line method would be

= (Purchase value of machinery - residual value) ÷ (estimated useful life)

= ($440,000 - $40,000) ÷ (10 years)

= $400,000 ÷ 10 years

= $40,000

From January 2, 2005 to the beginning of 2011, it have 6 years so the accumulated depreciation would be

= $40,000 × 6 years

= $240,000

And, the book value would be

= Purchase value of machinery - accumulated depreciation

= $440,000 - $240,000

= $200,000

Now the depreciation expense for 2011 would be

= (Book value + spent amount - salvage value) ÷ (remaining life)

= ($200,000 + $96,000 - $20,000) ÷ (8 years)

= $276,000 ÷ 8 years

= $34,500

Total years is 14 and the accumulated depreciation year is 6 years so , the remaining year would be 8 years

8 0
3 years ago
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