Answer: Bad Debt Expense 28,000 Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 28,000
Explanation:
Account receivable = 300,000
Percentage uncollectible = 10%
Current balance = 2000
Adjustment to allowance for uncollectible accounts is given by :
(Account receivable ×percentage uncollectible) - current balance
(300,000 × 10%) - 2000
(300,000 × 0.1) × 2000
30,000 - 2000 = 28,000
Therefore, adjustment should be :
bad debt expense debit 28,000
allowance for doubful account credit 28,000
Available Options Are:
a) higher sensitivity to changes in the interest rate, or
b) lower sensitivity to changes in the interest rate
Answer:
Option A. Higher sensitivity to changes in the interest rate
Explanation:
The reason is that the tax cut will encourage foreign investment and this increase in Foreign Investment will increase the GDP but by small amount. However, the higher interest rate in an economy always raises additional money in an economy which companies invest to purchase the new GDP. Thus the GDP growth is highly sensitive to changes in interest rate.
The fewest number of hours from the graph is 73 hours.
<h3>Equation</h3>
Equation is an expression used to show the relationship between two or more numbers and variables.
Let x represent the number of $10 course and y represent the number of $15 course.
Her goal is to save at least $1000, hence:
Also:
The fewest number is (20, 53)
The fewest number of hours from the graph is 73 hours.
Find out more on equation at: brainly.com/question/2972832
Answer: redistribution
Explanation: In simple words, redistribution refers to the process in which something is distributed in way to achieve a specific objective like equality etc.
In other words, it can be seen as transfer of wealth or resources from one section of the society to the other sections. Redistribution is performed by governments of the country and is implemented using tools such as taxes, charity and public services etc.
Hence from the above we can conclude that the given example depcits redistribution.
Answer:
Total sum at te end of 6 years=$ 73,138.97
Explanation:
<em>The total sum in Lee's account at the end of year would be determined as follows:</em>
FV= A × (1+r)^n
FV- Future sum?,
A- deposit amount ,
r- interest rate - 9%/2 = 4.5% per 6 months
n- number of years is 6
First deposit for 6 years
FV = 15,000× 1.045^(2×6)
= $25,438.22
Last 40,000 for 2 years
FV = 40,000 1.045^(2×2)
=47,700.74403
Total sum at the end of 6 years
= $25,438.22 + $47,700.74
=$ 73,138.97
