Answer:
The correct answer is c. Marginal analysis
Explanation:
Marginal analysis is a technique you can apply when you are comparing some options. We can say this analysis is an examination of the additional benefits of an activity compared to the additional costs incurred by that same activity. Using this technique you can maximize the potential profits.
The additional cost versus the additional benefit of a decision. In this case, Bill and Alma are analyzing if living 10 miles closer to their workplaces ( benefit) is worth the extra $25,000 in the cost of the house(cost). This is marginal analysis.
Answer:
Explanation:
The journal entries are shown below:
a. Cash A/c Dr $15,000
To Games revenue A/c $15,000
(Being cash collected)
b. Cash A/c Dr $3,000
Accounts receivable A/c Dr $5,000
To Sales revenue $8,000
(Being cash received for selling of equipment)
c. Cash A/c Dr $4,000
To Account receivable $4,000
(Being cash received for merchandise sold by the company)
d. Cash A/c Dr $2,500
To Unearned revenue A/c $2,500
(Being deposit received for the upcoming fall season)
Answer:
Explanation:
Annual demand (D) = 20000 units
Number of days per year = 250
Demand rate(d) = D/number of days per year = 20000/250 = 80 units
Production rate(p) = 655 units
Set up cost(S) = $1800
Holding cost (H) = $1.50
A) Optimum run size(Q) = sqrt of {2DS / H [1-(d/p)]}
= sqrt of {(2x20000x1800) /1.50[1-(80/655)]}
= Sqrt of [7200000/1.50(1-0.1221) ]
= sqrt of [72000000/(1.50 x 0.8779)]
= sqrt of (7200000/1.31685)
= Sqrt of 5467593.1199
= 2338 units
b) Maximum inventory ( I - max) = (Q/p) (p-d) = (2338/655)(655-80) = 3.5695 x 575 = 2052.46 or rounded off to 2052 units
Average inventory = I-max/2 = 2052/2 = 1026 units
C) Number of production setups per year = D/Q = 20000/2338 = 8.55 or rounded up to 6
d) optimal length of production run = optimal run size /production rate = 2338/655 = 3.56 or rounded up to 4 days
Answer:
$1,025.299
Explanation:
The formula for compound interest is
FV = PV × (1+r)^ n
Where Fv is the future value
Pv is the present value = $1000
r is interest rate = 1/2 % or 0.5% per year
n is five years
interest is compounded quarterly,
Interest per quarter = 0.5% /4 = 0.125% which is 0.00125
n will be 5 years x 4 quarters = 20 periods
Fv= $1000 x (1 +0.00125)^20
Fv =$1000 x(1.00125)^20
Fv= $1000 x 1.025299
Fv = $1,025.299
Answer:
The option (B) Debit Work in Process Inventory $72.000 credit Factory Wages Payable $172,000 is correct
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
As the cost of labor was sustained as regards to processing the inventory and it was not completed, so debit the work in process of account.
There also exits a liability of paying labor charges for this it will be payable.
Hence credit factory wages payable.
For the other options they are crediting cash which is not yet paid, here the option A and E is wrong.
For option D, they are crediting inventory which in this case is not correct due to the existence of a liability for paying labor fees.
The option D is wrong, because they debited with the cost of sold goods.
