The reason that Britain did NOT colonize Malaysia and Burma was to prevent china from colonizing them instead.
<h3>
Why did the British and Burma separate from India?</h3>
British partitioned Burma from India in 1937 to weaken the Burmese nationalist movement. After World War II, under the leadership of U Aung San, this movement reached its pinnacle, and Burma gained independence on January 4, 1948.
<h3>
When did the British leave Burma?</h3>
In 1937 the British government separated Burma from India and granted it its constitution, independent of that of India; the masses interpreted this as proof that the British planned to exclude Burma from the next phase of Indian reform.
To learn more about the Burmese nationalist movement visit the link
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Answer:
popular soverignty - people power, people vote to make the choices of the government
limited government - people in government should refrain from singling out particular, identifiable persons or groups for either harm or benefit
seperation of power - the government is seperated in 3 different branches legislative, executive, and judicial powers, all dong dofferent jobs
checks and balances - branches cheking on eachother to make sure theyre not getting too powerful
judicial review -review by the US Supreme Court of the constitutional validity of a legislative act
Federalism is a type of government in which the power is divided between the national government and the states
Explanation:
Answer:
After World War II, European countries lacked the wealth and political support necessary to suppress far-away revolts. They could not oppose the new superpowers the U.S. and the Soviet Union's stands against colonialism. Strong independence movements in colonies
For 4, your best choice is: B) Americans were divided on the issue of fighting in vietnam...
Reason: While the louder speaking majority wanted peace (as they were tired of war), there was still a faction of people who believe it is best to continue to fight. President Nixon believed that these people were the majority, hence the name 'silent majority'. However, the peace group was able to win, with the withdrawal of US troops and the eventual takeover of South Vietnam by communist troops.
Main Idea and Details What did the Supreme Court mean by "seperate but equal?" Why did many people feel this idea was faulty?
Answer: The term "separate but equal" was initiated too help garner Southern support. The Supreme Court termed it so that the South can still segregate many of the public areas, as long as 'they have equal chances and are relatively the same.' However, this idea was faulty, because many believed that if it was separate, that it will still 'not be equal', as the people do not feel that they are treated the same. As long as they are separate and not equal, 'the people will not feel that it is the same'.
hope this helps
