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Elden [556K]
3 years ago
15

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1½ parts rice. if 1½ parts of beans are used, how much rice should be used?

Mathematics
1 answer:
riadik2000 [5.3K]3 years ago
8 0
1 \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow  1\dfrac{1}{2}  \text{ parts rice}

1 \dfrac{1}{2}  \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow  1\dfrac{1}{2}  \times 1 \dfrac{1}{2}  \text{ parts rice}

1 \dfrac{1}{2}  \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow  \dfrac{3}{2}  \times \dfrac{3}{2}  \text{ parts rice}

1 \dfrac{1}{2}  \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow  \dfrac{9}{4} \text{ parts rice}

1 \dfrac{1}{2}  \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow  2\dfrac{1}{4} \text{ parts rice}
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vodomira [7]

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