Well, insurance or taxes! :D
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
d.All of the above.
Explanation:
Free cash flow is the amount of cash that is available for management to use in
any way they want (at their discretion), after all essential payments have been  made.
Essential payment may include taxation payment and other operational expenditure.
Keeping in view the above discussion, it can be assumed that the free cash flow can be used to pay additional dividends, acquire more property, plant and equipment and pay off debts.
Therefore the answer is d.All of the above.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
$50.67 per share
Explanation:
using the discounted cash flow model, we can determine Arras's total value:
CF₀ = $7.6 
CF₁ = $7.98
CF₂ = $8.379
CF₃ = $8.79795
CF₄ = $9.2378475
CF₅ = $9.699739875
CF₆ = $9.893734673
we must first find the terminal value at year 5 = $9.893734673 / (7% - 2%) = $197.874694
now we can discount the future cash flows:
firm's value = $7.98/1.07 + $8.379/1.07² + $8.79795/1.07³ + $9.2378475/1.07⁴ + $9.699739875/1.07⁵ + $197.874694/1.07⁵ = $7.458 + $7.319 + $7.182 + $7.048 + $6.916 + $141.081 = $177.004 million
the shareholders' share of the firm's value = $177.004 million - $25 million = $152.004 million
price per share = $152.004 million / 3 million shares = $50.668 ≈ $50.67 per share
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The predetermined overhead rate for the recently completed year was $25.33
Explanation:
The formula to compute the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:
Predetermined overhead rate = (Total estimated manufacturing overhead) ÷ (estimated direct labor-hours)
where, 
Total estimated manufacturing overhead = Estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead + estimated variable manufacturing overhead rate × estimated labor hours
= $1,230,440 + $3.12 × 55,400 hours
= $1,230,440 + $172,848
= $1,403,288
Now put these values to the above formula  
So, the rate would equal to
= $1,403,288 ÷ 55,400 hours
= $25.33
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
no capital gain or loss
Explanation:
A customer buys $10,000 of 30 year corporate bonds with 10 years left to maturity at 92. The customer elects not to accrete the discount annually. At maturity, the customer will have no capital gain or loss.