Answer:
Kd = 7%
Ke = D1 + g
Po(1 - FC)
Ke = $2 + 0.09
$40(1 - 0.15)
Ke = $2 + 0.09
$34
Ke = 0.1488 = 14.88%
WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)(1-T)
WACC = 14.88(60/100) + 7(40/100)(1 - 0.40)
WACC = 8.928 + 1.68
WACC = 10.6%
Explanation:
In this case before-tax cost of debt is given. Cost of equity is expected dividend divided by current market price after flotation cost plus growth rate. WACC is calculated as cost of equity multiplied by the proportion of equity in the capital structure plus after-tax cost of debt multiplied by proportion of debt in the capital structure.
What<span>approximately would be the total population of Illinois?
</span>
-12 million
Answer: increase the rate of growth of the money supply to restore spending growth.
Explanation:an increase in money supply growth. If the Federal Reserve offsets a negative shock to aggregate demand with increased money growth: both inflation and real GDP growth will rise.
Answer:
Long term liabilities.
Explanation:
This can be easily or mostly be used in companies and also firms. In most cases they are been tagged a non-current liability.
They are generally defined to be obligations that are not been settled for/paid off in the current year or accounting period. Therefore, debts of this kind are not due within a year. Dept of this kind ranges from notes payable to bonds payable, also mortgages and are also seen as leases in a company settings.
In as much as this is not good for a company's financial health, investors and creditors see how the company is financed through this. Current obligations are seen to be more risky than non-current debts because they will need to be paid sooner.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
It will need to decrease Because the wheat is gone, so it decreases the amount of cereal made.