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V125BC [204]
3 years ago
14

Assume the risk-free rate is 4%. You are a financial advisor, and must choose one of the funds below to recommend to each of you

r clients. Whichever fund you recommend, your clients will then combine it with risk-free borrowing and lending depending on their desired level of risk.
Expected Return Volatility
Fund A 10% 10%
Fund B 15% 22%
Fund C 6% 2%

Required:
a. Which fund would you recommend to a client seeking the highest possible expected return with a maximum volatility of 22%?
b. Which fund would you recommend to a client seeking the highest possible expected return with a maximum volatility of 22%?
c. Which fund would your recommend without knowing your clients risk preference?
Business
1 answer:
qwelly [4]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Following are the solution to the given point.

Explanation:

Calculate each fund's Sharpe ratio. It Fund is the best danger reward with the highest Sharpe ratio.

\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{\text{(Fund return - \text{risk free return)}}}{Volatility}\\\\\to Fund A= \frac{(10\%-4\%)}{10\%} = 0.6\\\\\to Fund B= \frac{(15\%-4\%)}{22\%} = 0.5\\\\\to Fund C = \frac{(6\%-4\%)}{2\%}=1.0\\\\

Fund C consequently offers the best risk-benefit. and without understanding client risk preference, we will advise Fund C for any clients. If a client wants to have a 22 percent minimum volatility, we'll nevertheless propose that Fund C instead of Fund B is available, because an investor can take risk-free rates to the degree that the total portfolio volatility stands at 22 percent and deposit it in Fund C.

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Answer:

The maximum price we should be willing to pay for this IBM bond is $ 877.

Explanation:

The price of bond can be determine by discounting all future cashlows we will get from bond in form of interest payment or redemption amount using expected rate of return.

The detail calculation is given below.

Price = 1000 * Discount factor + annuity factor * 80

Price = 1000 * 0.386 + 80 * 6.145     = 878

Discount factor = (1+10%)^-10 = 0.386

Annuity factor = (1 - (1+10%)^-10)/10% = 6.145

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4 years ago
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3 years ago
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aliya0001 [1]

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8 0
3 years ago
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4 years ago
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Chance Company had two operating divisions, one manufacturing farm equipment and the other office supplies. Both divisions are c
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

Net income = $76,000

Earning per share (EPS):

Income from continuing operations per share = $4.40 per share

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Explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file for the income statement.

Also Note: Two years (2016 and 2018) were mistakenly mentioned in the question instead of just one of them. I therefore picked 2016 to prepare the income statement.

In the attached excel file, the earning per share (EPS) is calculated as follows:

Number of shares outstanding = 100,000 shares

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Net Income per share = Net Income / Number of shares outstanding = $76,000 / 100,000 = $0.76 per share

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