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galben [10]
3 years ago
14

Can somebody explain this please

Mathematics
1 answer:
Naddika [18.5K]3 years ago
4 0
In this circle we have major arc RQ which is the really big one measuring 40x, and we have minor arc RQ, which is what we are looking for.  Minor arc RQ is double the measure of the angle that intercepts it.  That means that minor arc RQ is 2(12x-12), which is 24x - 24.  The measure of the outside of any circle will always and forever be 360 degrees;  therefore, 40x + 24x - 24 = 360.  Combining like terms gives us 64x = 384 and x = 6.  Now sub in that 6 for the x in the angle 12x - 12 to get that that angle measures 12(6)-12 = 60.  Again, the angle is half the measure of the arc it intercepts, so minor arc RQ is 120 degrees, third choice down.
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The length of a rectangle is 3 feet less than 4 times the width. The perimeter is 34 feet
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

A.Equation

Step-by-step explanation:

A. Equation 30 plus 4

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3 years ago
A 5-card hand is dealt from a perfectly shuffled deck. Define the events: A: the hand is a four of a kind (all four cards of one
TiliK225 [7]

In a hand of 5 cards, you want 4 of them to be of the same rank, and the fifth can be any of the remaining 48 cards. So if the rank of the 4-of-a-kind is fixed, there are \binom44\binom{48}1=48 possible hands. To account for any choice of rank, we choose 1 of the 13 possible ranks and multiply this count by \binom{13}1=13. So there are 624 possible hands containing a 4-of-a-kind. Hence A occurs with probability

\dfrac{\binom{13}1\binom44\binom{48}1}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{624}{2,598,960}\approx0.00024

There are 4 aces in the deck. If exactly 1 occurs in the hand, the remaining 4 cards can be any of the remaining 48 non-ace cards, contributing \binom41\binom{48}4=778,320 possible hands. Exactly 2 aces are drawn in \binom42\binom{48}3=103,776 hands. And so on. This gives a total of

\displaystyle\sum_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}=886,656

possible hands containing at least 1 ace, and hence B occurs with probability

\dfrac{\sum\limits_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{18,472}{54,145}\approx0.3412

The product of these probability is approximately 0.000082.

A and B are independent if the probability of both events occurring simultaneously is the same as the above probability, i.e. P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B). This happens if

  • the hand has 4 aces and 1 non-ace, or
  • the hand has a non-ace 4-of-a-kind and 1 ace

The above "sub-events" are mutually exclusive and share no overlap. There are 48 possible non-aces to choose from, so the first sub-event consists of 48 possible hands. There are 12 non-ace 4-of-a-kinds and 4 choices of ace for the fifth card, so the second sub-event has a total of 12*4 = 48 possible hands. So A\cap B consists of 96 possible hands, which occurs with probability

\dfrac{96}{\binom{52}5}\approx0.0000369

and so the events A and B are NOT independent.

4 0
3 years ago
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Gemiola [76]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Triss [41]

Answer:9/16

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we know it's 3/4 use

r=(3/4)²  .... (\frac{3}{4} x\frac{3}{4} ) =\frac{9}{16}

3 0
3 years ago
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uranmaximum [27]

The missing figure is attached down

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

<em>Let us explain the linear relation</em>

The linear equation is y = m x + b, where

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  • b is the y-intercept which means the initial amount of y (at x = 0)

<em>If a line represents the amount of water over time, then it represents the rate of filling of the water</em>

∵ There are two containers A and B that have the same size

∵ The two lines represent the amount of water over time in

    containers A and B

∴ The slopes of the lines represent the rat of water in the tanks

→ That means the greater slope represents the greater rate

∵ The greater the slope, the steeper the line

∴ The container that represented by the steeper the line is filling quickly

→ The line represents container A is steeper more than the line

    represents container B

∴ Container A is filling more quickly

4 0
3 years ago
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