Answer:
see the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
Find out the equation of each line of the piece wise
<em>First line</em>
The first line has an open circle at (negative 2, negative 2) and it continues horizontally to an open circle (negative 5, negative 2)
(-2,-2) to (-5,-2)
<em>Second line</em>
The second line has a closed circle at (negative 2, 0) and then continues up to an open circle at (1, 1.5)
[-2,0] to (1,1.5)
<u><em>Find the slope</em></u>
<u><em>Equation in point slope form</em></u>
we have
substitute
<u><em>Convert to slope intercept form</em></u>
so
<em>Third line</em>
The third line has a closed circle at (1, 4) and continues down to open circle (5, negative 4). Which functions represent a piece of the function?
[1,4] to (5,-4)
The equation of the line is
---> Repeat all steps that in second line
therefore
The piece wise function is equal to
---->
---->
--->
Answer:
each month 3 employees were laid off.
Step-by-step explanation:
the company started with 65 employees 12 months ago, and now there are 29. 65 - 29 = 36. In 12 months, 36 employees were laid off. 36 employees divided by 12 months = 3 employees per month.
Answer:
The probability is 0.8
Step-by-step explanation:
The key to answering this question is considering the fact that the two married employees be treated as a single unit.
Now what this means is that we would be having 8 desks to assign.
Mathematically, the number of ways to assign 8 desks to 8 employees is equal to 8!
Now, the number of ways the couple can interchange their desks is just 2 ways
Thus, the number of ways to assign desks such that the couple has adjacent desks is 2(8!)
The number of ways to assign desks among all six employees randomly is 9!
Thus, the probability that the couple will have adjacent desks would be ;
2(8!)/9! = 2/9
This means that the probability that the couple have non adjacent desks is 1-2/9 = 7/9 = 0.77778
Which is 0.8 to the nearest tenth of a percent
Answer:
- value: $66,184.15
- interest: $6,184.15
Step-by-step explanation:
The future value can be computed using the formula for an annuity due. It can also be found using any of a variety of calculators, apps, or spreadsheets.
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<h3>formula</h3>
The formula for the value of an annuity due with payment P, interest rate r, compounded n times per year for t years is ...
FV = P(1 +r/n)((1 +r/n)^(nt) -1)/(r/n)
FV = 5000(1 +0.06/4)((1 +0.06/4)^(4·3) -1)/(0.06/4) ≈ 66,184.148
FV ≈ 66,184.15
<h3>calculator</h3>
The attached calculator screenshot shows the same result. The calculator needs to have the begin/end flag set to "begin" for the annuity due calculation.
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<h3>a) </h3>
The future value of the annuity due is $66,184.15.
<h3>b)</h3>
The total interest earned is the difference between the total of deposits and the future value:
$66,184.15 -(12)(5000) = 6,184.15
A total of $6,184.15 in interest was earned by the annuity.
