Answer:
9 4/5
Step-by-step explanation:
This is fairly complex, but looks like fun.
So first lets count how many bids are made till the bidding goes up to 160.
That is 100*160=16000
How much will be your random bid. Each bid has equal chance so it is the avarge of all bids. (1cent + 160dollars)/2 = 80dollars (rounded)
What is your chance of winning: 1 bid wins out of 16000 so 1/16000.
When you win your profit is 2000-80dollars=1920
1920/16000= 0.12 dollars
You entering the bidding costs 1 dollar and your average win is 0.12
This the outcome is 0.12-1=-0.88 dollars
18m= -18 so m= -1 Hope it helps
For B I got that there are 3 stop signs
(still working on A)
9514 1404 393
Answer:
1/2 mL/min
Step-by-step explanation:
__
<em>Additional comment</em>
The units analysis tells you how to work this problem. In order to get from mg/min to mL/min, you need to multiply by a factor with units mL/mg. Those units are the inverse of the concentration in mg/mL, which is found from g/mL.
