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Mekhanik [1.2K]
3 years ago
5

Since school is over here ya go 100 points

Mathematics
2 answers:
harkovskaia [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Bond [772]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

I am so glad school is over!

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sergejj [24]

Answer:

26 (I think) :)

Step-by-step explanation:

i don’t know how to…

8 0
3 years ago
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Luke has 1/4
zvonat [6]
2/3
because 14/3= 2.66666666
14-2.666666= 9.33333333
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6 0
3 years ago
X = 42 whats the answer
hjlf

Answer:

x is 42

X = 42

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
g Consider the experiment of a single roll of an honest die and a single toss of 3 fair coins. Let X be the value on the die and
klemol [59]

Answer:

The probability function of X and Y is

P(X = k, Y = 0)  = 1/48\\P(X = k, Y = 1) = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 2) = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 3) = 1/48

With k in {1,2,3,4,5,6}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can naturally assume that X and Y are independent. Because of that, P(X=a, Y=b) = P(X=a) * P(Y=b) for any a, b.

Note that, since the die is honest, then P(X=k) = 1/6 for any k in {1,2,3,4,5,6}. We can conclude as a consequence that P(X=k, Y=l) = P(Y=l)/6 for any k in {1,2,3,4,5,6}.

Y has a binomial distribution, with parameters n = 3, p = 1/2. Y has range {0,1,2,3}. Lets compute the probability mass function of Y:

P_Y(0) = {3 \choose 0} * 0.5^3 = 1/8

P_Y(1) = {3 \choose 1} * 0.5* 0.5^2 = 3/8

P_Y(2) = {3 \choose 2} * 0.5^2*0.5 = 3/8

P_Y(3) = {3 \choose 3} * 0.5^3 = 1/8

Thus, we can conclude that the joint probability function is given by the following formula

P(X = k, Y = 0) = 1/8 * 1/6 = 1/48\\P(X = k, Y = 1) = 3/8 * 1/6 = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 2) = 3/8 * 1/6 = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 3) = 1/8 * 1/6 = 1/48

For any k in {0,1,2,3,4,5,6}

4 0
4 years ago
Given the trigometric function write the domain range amplitude period
Vanyuwa [196]

Answer:

IDK how to do this one sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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