Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I think it would be 4 I’m not sure though
Answer:(0,8)
Step-by-step explanation:
<span><span>You draw a queen on the first draw and one on the second<span><span><span>4/52 </span>∗ <span>3/51 </span>= <span>12/2652 </span>= <span>1/22 </span></span></span></span><span>
You draw something other than a queen on the first draw and a queen on the second<span><span><span>
48/52 </span>∗ <span>4/51 </span>= <span>192/2652</span>=<span>16/221</span></span></span></span></span>
So in total, the chance is:
<span><span><span>1/221 </span>+ <span>16/221 </span>= <span>17/221</span>=
<span>4/52</span></span></span>
Answer:
The answer is a= 15
Step-by-step explanation:
First, you multiply both sides by 5. 5*3 = 15 and a/5*5 = a, since 5 and 5 cancels out each other. This is optional, then you flip the equation to get a= 15. Hope this helps.