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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
7

24 red marbles is 40% of ___marbles

Mathematics
1 answer:
Law Incorporation [45]3 years ago
3 0
This answer kind of makes no sense, explain more pls? is there any more info given??
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A box contains cards bearing numbers from 6 to 70. If one card is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bea
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

a) 4/65 b) 13/65 c) 12/65 d) 19/65

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is the likelihood or chance that an event might occur.

Probability = expected outcome of event/Total outcome of event

If a box contains cards bearing numbers from 6 to 70, the total outcome will be the total number present from 6 to 70 which is 65

a) The amount of one digit number we have are 4 i.e {6,7,8,9}. This will be our expected outcome in this case.

The probability that the number drawn bears a one digit number will be 4/65

b) For numbers divisible by 5, the numbers that are divisible by 5 from the number drawn are {10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65, 70}

The total expected outcome in this case = 13

The probability that the number drawn is divisible by 5 = 13/65

c) For odd numbers less than 30, they are {7,9,11,13,15,17,19,21,23,25,27,29}

The total expected outcome in this case = 12

The probability that the number drawn are odd numbers less than 30 = 12/65

d) For composite number between 50 and 70, this are numbers that are within this range and they includes {51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,60,61,62,63,64,65,66,67,68,69}

The total expected outcome in this case = 19

The probability that the number drawn are composite numbers between 50 and 70= 19/65

8 0
3 years ago
in a class, 3/4 of the class like to go to the movies, 2/3 like action movies... how many like action movies in the class
7nadin3 [17]
50% i'm going to show you with=25%
you start a full calls

/4 going to the movies
]/3 like action movies
25%25% =50%
8 0
3 years ago
BRAINLIESTT ASAP! PLEASE HELP ME :)<br> thanks!
Nataly [62]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jose goes to the bodega. He
AysviL [449]

Answer:

1 bag of chips cost $1.25

Step-by-step explanation:

total money spent minus cost of soda = price of 2 bags of chips

$4.00- $1.50 = $2.50

2 bags of chips divided by 2 = price for one bag

$2.50 / 2 = $1.25

3 0
2 years ago
Look at the statement below.
mixas84 [53]
That would be A.
This is called the Contrapositive :-

If A implies B then Not B implies Not A.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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