9514 1404 393
Answer:
$2,104.33 at the beginning of the month, or
$2,111.35 at the end of the month
Step-by-step explanation:
The amount you can withdraw at the end of the month is given by the annuity formula ...
A = P(r/12)/(1 -(1 +r/12)^(-12t))
where principal P is earning annual rate r for t years
A = $400,000(0.04/12)/(1 -(1 +0.04/12)^(-12·25)) ≈ $2,111.35
If the withdrawal is at the beginning of the month, then the amount is less by a factor of (1+0.04/12) ≈ 1.003333. It will be $2,104.33.
It would be J. This is because the opposite of -3.5 would be 3.5 and the absolute value is just a positive integer or positive number so that would be 3.5 as well so its J
So f(x)=x+10 lets say
so if you put something into the function lets say 5 then the function will do something to it and give you an answer so if you put in 5 for x you would get 5+10 or 15
a function of a function
lets say
f(x)=2x-9
g(x)=7x+2
(g(x) is just another function represented by g instead of f)
so if you wanted to put g(x) as x into f(x) and put x in g(x) to 3
then f(g(x))=2(7x+2)-9 or f(g(3))=2(7*3+2)-9=2(23)-9=37
hope this helps
You have problem which looks like this
![6 \frac{2}{3} * 3\frac{3}{10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=6%20%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B3%7D%20%2A%203%5Cfrac%7B3%7D%7B10%7D%20)
To multiply fraction we have to transform into improper fractions
![\frac{20}{3}* \frac{33}{10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B20%7D%7B3%7D%2A%20%5Cfrac%7B33%7D%7B10%7D%20%20)
We can reduce 3 and 33 by cross reducing and 10 and 20
![\frac{2}{1} * \frac{11}{1} =2*11=22](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B1%7D%20%2A%20%5Cfrac%7B11%7D%7B1%7D%20%3D2%2A11%3D22)
- its the result.
Answer:
a: 1037 is the minimum sample size needed
b: 712 is the minimum sample size needed
Step-by-step explanation:
We need to use the formula for minimum sample size of a proportion when a sample proportion is known.
The level of confidence is 99%, which has a corresponding z-value of 2.575.
We know the desired error is 4%, or 0.04.
Part a: We have no prior estimate. See attached photo for calculation
Part b:
We know p-hat = 0.22. Therefore q-hat = 1 - 0.22 = 0.78
See the attached photo for the calculation of the minimum sample size