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Flauer [41]
3 years ago
7

While attending a school carnival, you estimate the ratio of children to adults as If there are 180 people at the carnival, abou

t how many children are in attendance?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Karolina [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

180-n_c

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the ratio of children to adults is 2:1.

Let n_c and n_a be the number of children and adults in the school carnival.

So, \frac {n_c}{n_a} = \frac 2 1

\Rightarrow n_c = 2 n_a \cdots(i)

Given that the total number of peoples in the carnival =180

So, n_c + n_a = 180

\Rightarrow n_a = 180-n_c \cdots(ii)

Now, from equations (i) and (ii), we have

n_c = 2(180-n_c) \\\\\Rightarrow n_c = 360 -2 n_c \\\\\Rightarrow n_c +2n_c = 360 \\\\\Rightarrow 3 n_c = 360 \\\\\Rightarrow n_c = 360/3 = 120.

Hence, the number of children in attendance is 120.

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Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
Evaluate :11/3 + -3/7 + -4/9
solmaris [256]

Answer:

3.67+(-0.43)+(-0.44)

3.67-0.43-0.44

3.24-0.44

<em><u>2.8 </u></em><em><u>Ans</u></em>

8 0
1 year ago
Select ALL the correct answers.
almond37 [142]
I believe it’s 1, 3 and 4
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Graph the line y+3x=-3​
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:  y = -3x-3 (Choose values for x)

Step-by-step explanation:

1st change the equation to y = mx+b form

In order to change the equation to y = mx+b form subtract the 3x to both sides.
The equation now becomes y = -3x-3

2nd we can either choose values for x such has (-2,-1,0,1,2) and plug in those values into our equation y = -3x-3
For example, if we plug in x= -2 we get y= -3(-2)-3 which becomes y =3. We then plot the point (-2,3) because -2 is our x coordinate and 3 is our y coordinate.
Or we can plug the equation into a calculator that will graph the equation for you.

3 0
1 year ago
ILL GIVE EVERYTHING IF U GET IT RIGHTTT
Veronika [31]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if you did the math it's A

I'm 100% Sure

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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