Answer: C. 7.3%
Explanation:
The yield rate is a weighted average of the yields over the years:
= [ (1 * 6%) + (2 * 7%) + (3 * 8%)] / ( 1 + 2 + 3)
= 44%/ 6
= 7.33%
= 7.3%
Answer:
Year Cash Flow (A) Cash Flow (B)
0 -37,500 -37,500
1 17,300 5,700
2 16,200 12,900
3 13,800 16,300
4 7,600 27,500
1) Using an excel spreadsheet and the IRR function:
IRR project A = 20%
IRR project B = 19%
2) Using the IRR decision rule, Bruin should choose project A.
3) In this case, since the length of the projects is only 4 years, then there should be no problem with the IRR decision rule, but for projects with longer time lengths, the discounts rates might vary and the best option is to use the modified internal rate of return (MIRR). But in this case the NPV of project B is higher, then Bruin should probably project B because it has a higher NPV. The NPV is always more important then the IRR.
4) Again using an excel spreadsheet and the NPV function:
NPV project A = $6,331
NPV project B = $8,139
5) first we must subtract cash flows from A by the cash flows from B:
1 $11,600
2 $3,300
3 -$2,500
4 -$19,900
then we calculate the IRR = 16%
Bruin should be indifferent between the two projects at a 16% discount rate. That means that at discount rates above 16%, you should choose project A, but at discount rates below 16%, you should choose project B
Based on the amount of raw materials requisitioned, the journal entry to debit the Manufacturing Overhead would be $4,000.
<h3>What amount would be debited to manufacturing overhead?</h3>
The manufacturing overhead is for expenses that are not directly involved in the manufacturing process.
This is why it is the indirect material amount of $4,000 that will be debited to the manufacturing overhead account.
Find out more on manufacturing overheads at brainly.com/question/13312583.
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Answer:
Explanation:
Expected return of the portfolio is weighted average of the return of the components.
E(R) = w1 * R1 + w2 * R2
E(R) = 65% * 18% + 35% * 6%
E(R) = 11.70% + 2.10%
Expected Return, E(R) = 13.80%
Standard deviation of portfolio is mathematically represented as:
where
w1 = the proportion of the portfolio invested in Asset 1
w2 = the proportion of the portfolio invested in Asset 2
σ1 = Asset 1 standard deviation of return
σ2 = Asset 2 standard deviation of return
For risk free money market fund, standard deviation = 0 and its correlation with risky portfolio = 0
Standard deviation = 19.50%
The answer is a loan agreement because you agreed to by the car
