Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
For any positive numbers a,b we always have the following identity:
(gcd(a,b) denotes the greatest common divisor between a and b, and lcm(a,b) denotes the least common multiple between a and b)
In our case, we are given that 
and that 
. Plugging that in into our identity, we get:
And so solving for 
:
The measure of PRQ is 46 degrees.
I am setting the week hourly rate to x, and the weekend to y. Here is how the equation is set up:
13x + 14y = $250.90
15x + 8y = $204.70
This is a system of equations, and we can solve it by multiplying the top equation by 4, and the bottom equation by -7. Now it equals:
52x + 56y = $1003.60
-105x - 56y = -$1432.90
Now we add these two equations together to get:
-53x = -$429.30 --> 53x = $429.30 --> (divide both sides by 53) x = 8.10. This is how much she makes per hour on a week day.
Now we can plug in our answer for x to find y. I am going to use the first equation, but you could use either.
$105.30 + 14y = $250.90. Subtract $105.30 from both sides --> 14y = $145.60 divide by 14 --> y = $10.40
Now we know that she makes $8.10 per hour on the week days, and $10.40 per hour on the weekends. Subtracting 8.1 from 10.4, we figure out that she makes $2.30 more per hour on the weekends than week days.
Sin D - 4/5
This is because sin would mean Opposite/Hypotenuse, and so if the angle is D then the opposite is 4.
sin C - 3/5
This is basically the same reason as sin D, however this time the Opposite is 3.
sin D × cos D - 4/5 × 3/5 = 12/25
For here, you just get the fractions of sin D, which we got earlier, and cos D, which would be Adjacent/Hypotenuse and therefore 3/5.
tan C × tan D - Not an option
cos C × tan D - 16/15
This is because cos C would be 4/5, and tan D would be 4/3 (Opposite/Adjacent) and multiplying those fractions together gives 16/15.
I hope this helps!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
100% means all of 40.
So 100% of 40 is 40
