Answer:
m(x) has the same domain as (m*n)(x)

Explanation:
1- For m(x):
m(x) is a fraction. This means that the denominator cannot be zero, otherwise, the fraction would be undefined.
The denominator of m(x) would be zero at x = 1.
This means that the domain of m(x) can be any real number except 1

2- For n(x):
The value of x in n(x) can be any number. This is because there is no value that would make n(x) undefined.
This means that the domain of n(x) is all real numbers

3- For (m*n)(x):
(m*n)(x) = m(x) * n(x) = $\frac{x-5}{x-1} *(x-3) = \frac{(x-5)(x-3)}{(x-1)}$

We can note that the product is also a fraction. This means that the denominator cannot be zero.
The denominator here will be zero at x = 1.
This means that the domain of (m*n)(x) is all real numbers except 1.
This is the same as the domain of m(x)

Hope this helps :)

8 0

4 years ago

I forgot how to do this ? I need help in interest please help

salantis [7]

I=prt so you multiply principal rate and time to get the answer

6 0

3 years ago

On a coordinate plane, which point lies on the y-axis? A) (9, 9) B) (0, 9) C) (9, 0) D) (−9, −9)

xeze [42]

The Point that lies on the y-axis is choice B) (0,9)

4 0

3 years ago

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