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<u><em>Answer:</em></u>m(x) has the same domain as (m*n)(x)
<u><em>Explanation:</em></u><u>1- For m(x):</u>m(x) is a fraction. This means that the <u>denominator cannot be zero</u>, otherwise, the fraction would be undefined.
The denominator of m(x) would be zero at x = 1.
This means that the <u>domain of m(x) can be any real number except 1</u>
<u>2- For n(x):</u>The value of x in n(x) can be any number. This is because there is no value that would make n(x) undefined.
This means that the <u>domain of n(x) is all real numbers</u>
<u>3- For (m*n)(x):</u>(m*n)(x) = m(x) * n(x) = </span>
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We can note that the product is also a fraction. This means that the <u>denominator cannot be zero</u>.
The denominator here will be zero at x = 1.
This means that the <u>domain of (m*n)(x) is all real numbers except 1</u>.
<u>
This is the same as the domain of m(x)</u>
Hope this helps :)</span>