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almond37 [142]
3 years ago
14

Simplify products and quotients

Mathematics
1 answer:
garik1379 [7]3 years ago
4 0
It’s c on edge2020!!
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PLEASE HELP ME!! BRAINLIEST AND 60 POINTS
Brilliant_brown [7]

\boxed{  \tt{its \: a \: straight \: line \: graph}}

3 0
2 years ago
Samir is an expert marksman. When he takes aim at a particular target on the shooting range, there is a 0.950.950, point, 95 pro
Vinvika [58]

Answer:

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them

Step-by-step explanation:

For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

0.95 probaiblity of hitting a target

This means that p = 0.95

10 targets

This means that n = 10

What is the probability that he will miss at least one of them?

Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 10) + P(X < 10) = 1

We want P(X < 10). So

P(X < 10) = 1 - P(X = 10)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 10) = C_{10,10}.(0.95)^{10}.(0.05)^{0} = 0.5987

P(X < 10) = 1 - P(X = 10) = 1 - 0.5987 = 0.401

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them

7 0
3 years ago
Jamar's teacher told him that one of the reasons he gave on the proof below was incorrect. Which reason did he make the mistake
Kamila [148]

Answer:

Reason given in step 2. is incorrect. It should read; "Distributive Property."

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason given to go from :

2 (3x +4) = 56  to 6x + 8 = 56

is NOT "Multiplication Property of Equality" because one is not multiplying both sides of the equality by a number. The property that is being used is the Distributive Property on the left side of the equation in order to remove the grouping symbols (parenthesis) performing the implied multiplication of the external factor times each term of the binomial in parenthesis.

8 0
3 years ago
What is 1 and 1/2% of 400?
aniked [119]
\bf {{ a}}\%\ of\ b \implies  \cfrac{{{ a}}}{100}\cdot b\implies {{ a}}\div 100\cdot b\\\\&#10;-----------------------------\\\\&#10;thus&#10;\\\\&#10;&#10;\begin{cases}&#10;{{ 1}}\%\ of\ 400 \implies  \cfrac{{{ 1}}}{100}\cdot 400\implies {{1}}\div 100\cdot 400\\&#10;--------------\\&#10;{{ \frac{1}{2}}}\%\ of\ 400 \implies  \cfrac{{{ \frac{1}{2}}}}{100}\cdot 400\implies {{\frac{1}{2}}}\div 100\cdot 400&#10;\end{cases}

you tell us
3 0
3 years ago
Translate the following sentence into an equation. Then solve the equation.
AfilCa [17]

the answer is

3x+7=25

-7 -7

3x=18

3x/3=18/3

x=6

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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