Answer:
40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Step-by-step explanation:
For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
0.95 probaiblity of hitting a target
This means that 
10 targets
This means that 
What is the probability that he will miss at least one of them?
Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

We want P(X < 10). So

In which

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Answer:
Reason given in step 2. is incorrect. It should read; "Distributive Property."
Step-by-step explanation:
The reason given to go from :
2 (3x +4) = 56 to 6x + 8 = 56
is NOT "Multiplication Property of Equality" because one is not multiplying both sides of the equality by a number. The property that is being used is the Distributive Property on the left side of the equation in order to remove the grouping symbols (parenthesis) performing the implied multiplication of the external factor times each term of the binomial in parenthesis.