Answer:
1/5
Step-by-step explanation:
Range as a measure of central tendency is the difference between the highest value and the lowest value in a given set of data.
Given the samples 0,1,3,4,7
Total number of samples is 5
The range is gotten by taking the difference of 2 samplesout of 5samples and this can be done in 5C2 ways.
5C2 = 5!/(5-2)!2!
= 5!/3!2!
= 5×4×3!/3!×2
= 10ways
The total outcome is therefore 10
To get the probability that the range is 4, we need to get the required outcome of getting range of 4 and this can only occur twice
The range can be gotten by taking the difference between 7 and 3, it can also be gotten by taking the difference between 4 and 0. Both differences will give us a total of 4
The expected outcome is therefore 2
the probability that the range of the sample is 4 = expected outcome/total outcome
= 2/10
= 1/5
Answer: i don’t know you can search it up
Step-by-step explanation:
$478 by using the provided formula ...
Explanation : income = $523 , expense = $ 45 , profit =523-45= 478
The dollar number that defines where the lowest values falls is
20% percentile value =$20
This is further explained below.
<h3 /><h3>What is the dollar number that defines where the lowest value falls?</h3>
Generally, Now we need to determine the 20th percentile ($20). It indicates that we need to locate a dollar amount that marks the point at which the 20 % data has a value lower than that number.
i=(p/100)*n
Where i is the position of p^th
percentile when the data is presented in ascending order.
i=20/100*50
i=1000/100
i=10
Therefore
n=50
p=20
In conclusion, the 10th position for given data is 20,
Therefore, 20% percentile value =$20
Read more about percentile
brainly.com/question/1594020
#SPJ1
Answer:
The answer will always be negative
Step-by-step explanation:
The rule is if you multiply positive by positive it will equal positive.
If you multiply negative and negative it will equal positive.
But if you multiply negative and positive it will equal negative.