Help me on this please and thank you
2 answers:
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9514 1404 393
Answer:
the y-intercepts differ
Step-by-step explanation:
The x-coefficient is the same for each function, so parallel lines are described. The function g(x) has a y-intercept of -4; f(x) has a y-intercept of 0.
The graphs differ in their intercepts.
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<em>Additional comment</em>
g(x) can be considered to be a translation downward of f(x) by 4 units. The same graph of g(x) can be obtained by translating f(x) to the right by 2 units. That is, both the x-intercepts and y-intercepts differ between the two functions.
