Answer:
It is not a one to one function
Step-by-step explanation:
Required
Determine if f(x) = round(x) is a one to one function
This question is best answered using illustrating values;
Let x = 1.1
f(x) = round(x) becomes
f(1.1) = round(1.1)
f(1.1) = 1
Let x = 1.3
f(x) = round(x) becomes
f(1.3) = round(1.3)
f(1.3) = 1
Notice that for the two values of x, f(x) has the same value of 1.
This two illustrating values can be used to conclude that the fuction is not one-to-one.
They will be in the form: a/b / c/d
you can re-write it as a/b * d/c...then it will be easy for you!!!
Answer:
no
Step-by-step explanation:
38 minus 15
38 - 15
15 less than 38
15 < 38
We have
(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²
so that with a = x² and b = 5, we have
x⁴ + 10x² + 25 = (x² + 5)²
Next, we have
a² - b² = (a - b) (a + b)
so that with a = x and b = √5 i,
x² + 5 = x² - (-5) = (x - √5 i) (x + √5 i)
So, the complete factorization over the complexes is
(x - √5 i)² (x + √5 i)²
