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2 years ago

Simplify: –5 1/4 - (-7 1/2)

Mathematics

1 answer:

Trava [24]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

-5 1/4 - (-7 1/2) = 9/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Use a calculator to check.

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Ivahew [28]

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

How long will it take Carlos to walk 16 miles if he is walking 4 mph?

qwelly [4]

It will take Carlos 4 hours to walk 16 miles.

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3 years ago

Pam is painting a total of 45 square feet in her bedroom. If she has painted 60% so far, how many square feet of the bedroroom d

Leno4ka [110]

Since she has painted 60% of her bedroom so far, 40% must remain. In order to know how many square feet that is, we take the total amount of square feet she needs to paint and multiply it by 0.4

45*0.4 = 18 square feet

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Find each quotient. Write in simplest form. keep answer as fraction - not decimal

kirill [66]

So we are given the expression:

$\frac{mn^{2}}{4}$ ÷ $\frac{m^{2}n}{8}$

When we divide fractions, we must flip the second term and change the sign to multiplication:

$\frac{mn^{2}}{4} *\frac{8}{m^{2}n}$

And then we multiply across:

$\frac{mn^{2}}{4} *\frac{8}{m^{2}n}= \frac{8mn^{2}}{4m^{2}n}$

Then we can break apart all of the like variables for simplification:

$\frac{8mn^{2}}{4m^{2}n}=\frac{8}{4} * \frac{m}{m^{2}} *\frac{n^{2}}{n}$

When we simplify variables through division, we subtract the exponent of the numerator from the exponent of the denominator. So we then have:

$\frac{8}{4} =2$

$\frac{m}{m^{2}}=m^{-1} =\frac{1}{m}$

$\frac{n^{2}}{n}=n^{1}=\frac{n}{1}$

So then we multiply all of these simplified parts together:

$\frac{2}{1}*\frac{1}{m}*\frac{n}{1} =\frac{2n}{m}$

So now we know that the simplified form of the initial expression is: $\frac{2n}{m}$ .

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2 years ago

Winning the jackpot in a particular lottery requires that you select the correct five numbers between 1 and 34 and, in a separa

Marina CMI [18]

<h3>The probability of winning the lottery is $\frac{1}{10,295,472}$ </h3>

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, the total numbers in the jackpot = 1 to 34

Now, the number that needed to be drawn = 5

The number of ways , 5 number can be drawn from total 34 numbers :

$^{34} C _5 = \frac{34!}{5!(34-5)!} = 278,256$

Also, in separate draw, the correct number drawn = 1

So, the number of ways that can be done = 30 C 5 x 37

= 278,256 x 37 = 10,295,472

Now, P(win) = $\frac{\textrm{Total favorable attempts}}{\textrm{Total attempts}} = \frac{1}{10,295,472}$

Hence, the probability of winning the lottery is $\frac{1}{10,295,472}$

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3 years ago

Simplify: –5 1/4 - (-7 1/2)​

Simplify: –5 1/4 - (-7 1/2)