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nikklg [1K]
2 years ago
13

Please help me thanks y’all

Mathematics
2 answers:
Crank2 years ago
6 0

h^{2}=6*6\\h^{2}=36\\h=6\\and\\ y=45

klemol [59]2 years ago
3 0
Y=45 I think is correct
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18 Andy flies from the UK to Japan.
kotykmax [81]

Answer:

<u>Leila pays more</u> than Andy to fly from the UK to Australia.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Andy flies from the UK to Japan.

His plane ticket costs £554.

Andy then flies from Japan to Australia.

His plane ticket costs 70 140 Japanese Yen.

The exchange rate is £1 = 140 Japanese Yen.

Leila flies from the UK to Australia.

Her plane ticket costs 1860 Australian dollars.

The exchange rate is 1 Australian dollar = £0.62.

<u>Now, to find Andy or Leila who pays more to fly from the UK to Australia.</u>

Andy flies from the UK to Japan.

His plane ticket costs = £554.

Andy then flies from Japan to Australia.

His plane ticket costs 70 140 Japanese Yen.

The exchange rate is £1 = 140 Japanese Yen.

So, by using conversion factor we convert Japanese Yen to £.

140 = £1

70140 = 70140\div 140=\£501.

His plane ticket costs = £501.

Now, adding both the cost of tickets:

501+554=\£1055.

Andy total pays fly from the UK to Australia is £1055.

Now, to get the cost of plane ticket of Leila from the UK to Australia.

Her plane ticket costs 1860 Australian dollars.

The exchange rate is 1 Australian dollar = £0.62.

So, by using conversion factor:

1 Australian dollar = £0.62

1860 Australian dollar = 1860\times 0.62=\£1153.2

Her plane ticket costs is £1153.2.

<u><em>As, we see that cost of plane ticket of Andy is £1055 and cost of plane ticket of Leila is £1153.2.</em></u>

<em>Thus, Leila pays more.</em>

Therefore, Leila pays more than Andy to fly from the UK to Australia.

4 0
3 years ago
Does anyone know this
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer: you minus the equations you have to get the equation that you want so it all can add up to that *

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What number do u divide with 11 to get the answer 17
Reika [66]
17x11=187                                              need more character there done
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Prove that \displaystyle \frac{\cos \theta}{1 + \sin \theta} = \frac{1 - \sin \theta}{\cos \theta}
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

sin^2(θ)+cos^2(θ)=1

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the statement above is true because of the Pythagorean identity theorem, which states the aforementioned equation. If you solve the equation for 1 you get the same equation.

To do this first multiply both sides by cos(θ), this gives you (cos^2θ)/1+sinθ = 1-sinθ

Then, multiply both sides by sinθ. This equals cos^θ=1-sin^2θ.

Finally, add sin^2θ to both sides. This equals the final answer of cos^2θ+sin^2θ=1. Which is true.

7 0
2 years ago
A set of data may have more than one mode.<br> (1 Point)<br> True<br> False
JulsSmile [24]
True

I’m not 100% positive but I’m pretty sure
6 0
2 years ago
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