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2 years ago

Solve the literal equation for x

Mathematics

2 answers:

xeze [42]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

(1)

y = 5x - 7x , that is

y = - 2x ( divide both sides by - 2 )

x = - $\frac{1}{2}$ y

(2)

mx - r = y ( add r to both sides )

mx = y + r ( divide both sides by m )

x = $\frac{y+r}{m}$

(3)

2x + 3y = 10 ( subtract 2x from both sides )

3y = 10 - 2x ( divide both sides by 3 )

y = $\frac{10-2x}{3}$

(4)

5x - 3y = 4 ( subtract 5x from both sides )

- 3y = 4 - 5x ( divide both sides by - 3 )

y = $\frac{4-5x}{-3}$ ( multiply numerator/ denominator by - 1 , to 'tidy up' )

y = $\frac{5x-4}{3}$

hjlf2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Are this Form 1 question?

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What size is the television screen shown in the illustration? Find if 20 in. and 15 in. ?

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2 years ago

The prior probabilities for events A1 and A2 are P(A1) = 0.20 and P(A2) = 0.80. It is also known that P(A1 ∩ A2) = 0. Suppose P(

Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

(a) $A_1$ and $A_2$ are indeed mutually-exclusive.

(b) $\displaystyle P(A_1\; \cap \; B) = \frac{1}{20}$ , whereas $\displaystyle P(A_2\; \cap \; B) = \frac{1}{25}$ .

(d) $\displaystyle P(A_1 \; |\; B) \approx \frac{5}{9}$ , whereas $P(A_1 \; |\; B) = \displaystyle \frac{4}{9}$

Step-by-step explanation:

$P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0$ means that it is impossible for events $A_1$ and $A_2$ to happen at the same time. Therefore, event $A_1$ and $A_2$ are mutually-exclusive.

By the definition of conditional probability:

$\displaystyle P(B \; | \; A_1) = \frac{P(B \; \cap \; A_1)}{P(B)} = \frac{P(A_1 \; \cap \; B)}{P(B)}$ .

Rearrange to obtain:

$\displaystyle P(A_1 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_1) \cdot P(A_1) = 0.25 \times 0.20 = \frac{1}{20}$ .

Similarly:

$\displaystyle P(A_2 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_2) \cdot P(A_2) = 0.80 \times 0.05 = \frac{1}{25}$ .

Note that:

$\begin{aligned}P(A_1 \; \cup \; A_2) &= P(A_1) + P(A_2) - P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0.20 + 0.80 = 1\end{aligned}$ .

In other words, $A_1$ and $A_2$ are collectively-exhaustive. Since $A_1$ and $A_2$ are collectively-exhaustive and mutually-exclusive at the same time:

$\displaystyle P(B) = P(B \; \cap \; A_1) + P(B \; \cap \; A_2) = \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{25} = \frac{9}{100}$ .

By Bayes' Theorem:

$\begin{aligned} P(A_1 \; |\; B) &= \frac{P(B \; | \; A_1) \cdot P(A_1)}{P(B)} \\ &= \frac{0.25 \times 0.20}{9/100} = \frac{0.05 \times 100}{9} = \frac{5}{9}\end{aligned}$ .

Similarly:

$\begin{aligned} P(A_2 \; |\; B) &= \frac{P(B \; | \; A_2) \cdot P(A_2)}{P(B)} \\ &= \frac{0.05 \times 0.80}{9/100} = \frac{0.04 \times 100}{9} = \frac{4}{9}\end{aligned}$ .

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Step-by-step explanation:

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