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OLEGan [10]
3 years ago
9

I need help with this ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
gtnhenbr [62]3 years ago
5 0
So what are we trying to find the reduced fraction or inverse operation
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Which pair of triangles can be proven congruent by SAS?<br> AA
GalinKa [24]
The second one. There is a side, an angle, and another side.
7 0
3 years ago
Hey its really easy but help me pls
natita [175]

Answer:

D) 26/48

Step-by-step explanation:

/ = division sign

26/48 also means 26 divided by 48.

Simple math.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need an answer ASAP!!! Tyyyy
patriot [66]

Part A

x = amount of money she starts with

(4/9)x = cost of the dress

(5/9)x = amount of money leftover after buying the dress

note that 4/9 and 5/9 add to 1 to represent 100% of her money

(3/4)*(5/9)x = (15/36)x = (5/12)x = amount spent on shoes

We see that she spent 5/12 of her original amount of money on shoes.

-----------------------

We can look at a more concrete example if the previous section does not make sense.

Let's multiply the denominators 9 and 4 to get 9*4 = 36. Doing this trick will mean that the later steps won't involve decimal values.

Let's say she starts off with $36

Multiply that with 4/9 to get (4/9)*36 = 16. So in this hypothetical situation, the dress costs $16 and she's left with 36-16 = 20 dollars.

Multiply that 20 by 3/4 to get (3/4)*20 = 15

In this situation, the shoes cost $15

We'll then divide the cost of the shoes (15) over the original amount of money she started with (36)

15/36 = (3*5)/(3*12) = 5/12

-----------------------

<h3>Answer:  5/12</h3>

=======================================================

Part B

From the first section in part A, we found that:

  • (4/9)x = amount of money spent on the dress
  • (5/12)x = amount of money spent on shoes

Add those two expressions

(4/9)x + (5/12)x = (16/36)x + (15/36)x = (31/36)x

This indicates that buying the dress and shoes will cost (31/36)x dollars, where x is the original amount of money Jing has to start with.

The amount left over is (5/36)x because 5/36 adds with 31/36 to get 1.

Take 1/3 of this to get:

(1/3)*(5/36)x = (5/108)x

Then set this equal to 18 and solve for x

(5/108)x = 18

5x = 18*108

5x = 1944

x = 1944/5

x = 388.80

--------------------

Let's check the answer

If she starts with 388.80 dollars, then the dress costs (4/9)*388.80 = 172.80

She's left with 388.80 - 172.80 = 216 dollars after buying the dress.

She then spends the remaining 3/4 of that on shoes. So (3/4)*216 = 162 dollars is spent on the shoes.

Jing now has 216 - 162 = 54 dollars left over.

1/3 of which is spent on the shoe bag, meaning it costs (1/3)*54 = 18 dollars

This confirms our answer.

--------------------

<h3>Answer:  $388.80</h3>
8 0
2 years ago
A=10^x, b=10^yanda^y^*b*x=100then2xy=?​
sergejj [24]

Answer:

Here is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

xy = 1

Hope you like it : )

7 0
3 years ago
Help! please i cant figure it out.
ki77a [65]

let's recall that the graph of a function passes the "vertical line test", however, that's not guarantee that its inverse will also be a function.

A function that has an inverse expression that is also a function, must be a one-to-one function, and thus it must not only pass the vertical line test, but also the horizontal line test.

Check the picture below, the left-side shows the function looping through up and down, it passes the vertical line test, in green, but it doesn't pass the horizontal line test.

now, check the picture on the right-side, if we just restrict its domain to be squeezed to only between [0 , π], it passes the horizontal line test, and thus with that constraint in place, it's a one-to-one function and thus its inverse is also a function, with that constraint in place, or namely with that constraint, cos(x) and cos⁻¹(x) are both functions.

7 0
2 years ago
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