Proof:-
In ∆XYZ and ∆VWZ

Hence
∆XYZ
∆VWZ(Side-Angle-Side)
First write the equations in the slope-intercept form:

Line 1 passes through the points (-6,-6) and (-4,-3).

Line 2 passes through the points (0,3) and (2,6).

These are two identical lines so the system of equations has infinitely many solutions. The answer is D.
Answer:
3: D - Undefined
4: A - 1
Step-by-step explanation:
For Question 3 your answer is D, undefined, because it does not have a slope, a slope is like a hill, but that just goes straight up, thus it is undefined.
For Question 4 your answer is A, 1, because it moves one digit to the right and then 1 digit up, Thus that is your answer.
Answer:
46
Step-by-step explanation:
You have to do IVU+TUI=TUV
so... x+49+x+63=106
Answer: a.This is the average number of days the house stayed on the market before being sold for $150,000.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given: f(p) be the average number of days a house stays on the market before being sold for price p in $1,000s.
To find the meaning f(150),
here p= 150 which means f(150) is the average number of days a house stays on the market before being sold for price 150 in $1,000s.
And 150 in $ 1,000= $150,000
Therefore, f(150) is the average number of days a house stays on the market before being sold for price $150,000.