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lidiya [134]
3 years ago
7

Please help me! I’ll mark as brilliant

Mathematics
1 answer:
IrinaVladis [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 30 i believe

Step-by-step explanation:

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INCREDIBLY URGENT!
klemol [59]

Answer:

a) By graphing just one interval of length T. b) Infinite number of angles, c) Infinite times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Any function is periodical when:

f(t) = f(t+i\cdot T), \forall i \in \mathbb{N}_{O}

Where T is the period of the function. The periodicity of the function allows us to limit the graphing of the function to just an interval of one period and according to the definition, you can expect same output with n different angles (infinite number of angles and same output infinite times).

4 0
3 years ago
Hurry! might mark brainliest! what is this in slope-intercept form?
Angelina_Jolie [31]
Y=2/3x

The y-intercept is zero, and the slope is 2/3
5 0
3 years ago
The triangle ABC is dilated with respect to the point O(8, -3) and the scale factor 3 to a new triangle A'B'C'. What is the slop
Aleks [24]
The slope of the line segment A'C' is 1/7.
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3 years ago
Some one help i hate math
Daniel [21]
I would say 1/12 ft but I might be wrong.
6 0
3 years ago
In a cookie jar, 1/4 of the cookies are chocolate chip and 1/2 of the rest are peanut butter. what fraction of all the cookies a
schepotkina [342]

Answer:

\frac{3}{8}


Step-by-step explanation:

The fraction of all the cookies is equivalent to 1.


If \frac{1}{4} of the cookies are chocolate chip, then the remaining cookies is equivalent to

1-\frac{1}{4}=\frac{3}{4}.


The fraction of all the cookies that are peanut butter is


=\frac{1}{2}\times \frac{3}{4}


=\frac{3}{8}



8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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