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Juliette [100K]
3 years ago
13

A construction manager just starting in private practice needs a van to carry crew and equipment. She can lease a used van for $

3,510 per year, paid at the beginning of each year, in which case maintenance is provied. Alternatively, she can buy a used van for $5,185 and pay for maintenance herself. She expects to keep the van for three years at which time she could sell it for $1,330. What is the most she should pay for uniform annual maintenance to make it worthwhile to buy the van instead of leasing it, if her MARR is 20%
Business
1 answer:
Viefleur [7K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$2,116

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Option 1 - Leasing

= 3510 + ( 3510 ÷ 1.2 ) + ( 3510 ÷ 1.2 ^ 2 )

= 8872.5

Now

Option 2 - Buying

Given that

Initial Cost - 5185

PV of salvage value = 1330 ÷ 1.2 ^ 3

= 769.68

So,  

Cost = 5185 - 769.68

= 4457.176

Now the payment should be

= 4457.176 × 0.47473 (PV annuity factory for 20% at 3 years)

= $2,115.955

= $2,116

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Firm A issued a $1,000,000 bond with a 20-year term at a discount. If the remaining amount of the discount on bonds payable is $
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

Loss of $200,000

Explanation:

Carrying value of bond = $1,000,000 - $100,000

Carrying value of bond = $900,000

Cash paid on bonds = $1,100,000

Loss on bond = Cash paid on bonds - Carrying value of bond

Loss on bond = $1,100,000 - $900,000

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8 0
3 years ago
Farr Company purchased a new van for floral deliveries on January 1, 2020. The van cost $56,000 with an estimated life of 5 year
marta [7]

Answer:

The balance of the Accumulated Depreciation account at the end of 2021 is $26,880

Explanation:

Under the straight-line method, useful life is 5 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 20% of the Depreciable cost.

Depreciable cost = Total asset cost - salvage value =  $56,000-$14,000 = $42,000

Under the double-declining-balance method the 20% straight line rate is doubled to 40% - multiplied times the Depreciable cost's book value at the beginning of the year.

Depreciation expense for 2020 = 40% x $42,000  = $16,800

At the beginning 2021, the Depreciable cost's book value is $42,000-$16,800 = $25,200

Depreciation expense for 2021 = 40% x $25,200 = $10,080

The balance of the Accumulated Depreciation account at the end of 2021 = $16,800 + $10,080 = $26,880

8 0
3 years ago
"Division A, which is operating at capacity, produces a component that currently sells in a competitive market for $25 per unit.
Travka [436]

Answer:

$25 per unit

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Selling price per unit = $25

Fixed cost per unit = $8

Variable cost per unit = $10

Based on the above information, the price that division A should charged from Division B is equal to the selling price per unit i.e $25 because Division A currently sells and operates in a competitive market so it should be same for division B

8 0
3 years ago
At the end of 2003, Ritzcar Co. fails to accrue sales commissions earned during 2003, but paid in 2004. The error is not repeate
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

The effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.

The error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.

Explanation:

Let the amount of the commission expense be xxxx.

At the end of 2003, the journal entries should have been as follows:

Debit Commission expense for xxxx

Credie Commission payable for xxxx

Also, we have:

Working capital = Current assets – Current liabilities ………… (1)

From equation (1), current liabilities are understated because commission payable which was not recorded is an item under current liabilities. Since the current liabilities are understated, that indicates that the working capital in equation is overstated. Therefore, the effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.

When the 2003 commission expense in the entries above was paid in 2004, it would have been recognized as an expense. This made the error to counterbalance. This implies that the 2004 ending retained earnings balance is still correct despite that there are errors in the earnings of the two years. Therefore, the error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.

4 0
3 years ago
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