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GuDViN [60]
2 years ago
5

Majer Corporation makes a product with the following standard costs: Standard Quantity or HoursStandard Price or RateStandard Co

st Per Unit Direct materials 6.3ounces$4.00per ounce$25.20 Direct labor 0.9hours$14.00per hour$12.60 Variable overhead 0.9hours$4.00per hour$3.60 The company reported the following results concerning this product in February. Originally budgeted output 5,200units Actual output 5,900units Raw materials used in production 33,300ounces Actual direct labor-hours 2,050hours Purchases of raw materials 33,800ounces Actual price of raw materials$37.10per ounce Actual direct labor rate$27.60per hour Actual variable overhead rate$5.50per hour The company applies variable overhead on the basis of direct labor-hours. The direct materials purchases variance is computed when the materials are purchased. The variable overhead efficiency variance for February is:
Business
1 answer:
irina1246 [14]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Variable overheads efficiency variance = $13,040  favorable  

Explanation:

<em>Variable overheads efficiency variance is the difference between the standard hours of actual output and actual hours valued at the standard variable overhead rate per hour </em>

                                                                                       Hours

5,900munits should have taken (5,900× 0.9)          5,310

but did take                                                                 <u> 2050  </u>        

efficiency variance in hours                                         3,260 favorable

Standard rate per hour                                               <u>   $4.00 </u>  

Variable overheads efficiency variance                   <u>   13,040 favorable </u>

Variable overheads efficiency variance = $13,040  favorable          

You might be interested in
our Grandfather wants to establish a scholarship in his father’s name at a local university and had stipulated that you will adm
inn [45]

Answer:

The correct answer is Option A. you will need to deposit $111,111 so that you can fund the scholarship forever, assuming that the account will earn 4.50% per annum every year.

Explanation:

Perpetuity is the cash flows to be receivable for an unspecified period of time. The present value of a perpetuity is calculated as the cash flows divided by the interest rate provided.  

Given data;

Amount needed to be deposited = $5000

Interest rate = 4.50%

Present Value of Perpetuity = Cash Flows ÷ Interest rate  

= $5000 ÷ 0.045

= $111,111

3 0
3 years ago
A local partnership is liquidating and is currently reporting the following capital balances: Barley, capital (50% share of all
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

Barley $29,000; Carter $23,000 ;Desai $0

Explanation:

Calculation to determine How much of this money should each of the partners receive

PARTNER WITH DEFICIT CAPITAL BALANCE

Barley,Capital(50%) Carter,Capital(30%)

Desai,Capital(20%)

Reported balances $44,000 $32,000 $(24,000)

Potential loss from Desai deficit

(split 5/8:3/8)

($15,000)($9,000) $24,000

Barley (5/8*$24,000=$15,000)

Carter (3/8*$24,000=$9,000)

Desai($15,000)($9,000) =$24,000

Cash distributions $29,000 $23,000 $0

Barley ($44,000-$15,000=$29,000)

Carter, ($32,000-$9,000=$23,000)

Desai($24,000-$24,000=0)

Therefore The amount of the money that each of the partners should receive is :

Barley $29,000; Carter $23,000 ;Desai $0

8 0
3 years ago
Look at the sales prices change that is being suggested. In particular, Winetki talks about one of the product's prices as doubl
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

The calculation of a revised break-even point in units for the firm as a whole, using the weighted-average contribution margin approach is 1,155,556 units.

<h3>What is the weighted-average contribution margin?</h3>

The weighted-average contribution margin shows the average amount that a group of products or services contribute to meet the fixed costs.

The weighted-average contribution margin can be computed as Aggregate sales - Aggregate variable expenses) ÷ Number of units sold.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Aggregate sales revenue = $1,800,000

Aggregate variable costs = $1,125,000

Aggregate contribution margin = $675,000 ($1,800,000 - $1,125,000)

Total units sold = 1,500,000

Total fixed costs = $520,000

Weighted average contribution margin = $0.45 ($675,000/1,500,000)

Break-even point in units = 1,155,556 units ($520,000/$0.45)

Thus, the calculation of a revised break-even point in units for the firm as a whole, using the weighted-average contribution margin approach is 1,155,556 units.

Learn more about break-even analysis at brainly.com/question/21137380

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
Can i call the post office to check on a package
Greeley [361]
Yes, you can call the post office to check on a package
7 0
3 years ago
Since its formation, Roof Corporation has incurred the following net Section 1231 gains and losses. Year 1$(12,000)Net Section 1
vekshin1

Answer:

a. $0 will be reported as capital gain, while $7,500 will be reported as ordinary gain.

b. $1,000 will be reported as capital gain, while $8,000 will be reported as ordinary gain.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete as part 'a' of the requirement is omitted. The complete question with the part 'a' of the requirement is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Since its formation, Roof Corporation has incurred the following net Section 1231 gains and losses.

Year 1  $ (12,000)    Net Section 1231 loss

Year 2      10,500      Net Section 1231 gain

Year 3    (14,000)     Net Section 1231 loss

a. In year 4, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $7,500 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

b. In year 5, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $9,000 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

When section 1231 losses exceed section 1231 profits in the prior five years, the excess loss (unapplied loss) is applied against the current year's section 1231 gain.

The amount that is reported as ordinary income is the amount of the loss that is applied against the current year's section 1231 gain.

Long-term capital gain is the excess of the current year's section 1231 gain over the the recaptured section 1231 loss from the prior five years.

You have to start with the earliest year to apply section 1231 losses from the previous five years to the current year's section 1231 gain.

Therefore, we have:

a. In year 4, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $7,500 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

As a result of the loss from the previous year that is applied to the extent of $7,500, the whole of the $7,500 net Section 1231 gain will be recorded as ordinary gain.

Therefore, $0 will be reported as capital gain, while $7,500 will be reported as ordinary gain.

b. In year 5, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $9,000 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

Unapplied losses in previous years can be calculated as follows:

<u>Details                                                       Amount ($)   </u>

Net Section 1231 loss in Year 3                  (14,000)    

Net Section 1231 gain in Year 4                   7,500

Net Section 1231 loss in Year 1                  (12,000)

Net Section 1231 gain in Year 2               <u>   10,500  </u>

Unapplied losses in previous years    <u>    (8,000)  </u>

Because there are unapplied losses of $8,000 from previous years, $8,000 will be reported as ordinary gain.

Therefore, the amount to be reported as capital gain can be calculated as follows:

Amount to be reported as capital gain = Gain in Year 5 – Amount to be reported as ordinary gain = $9,000 - $8,000 = $1,000

Therefore, $1,000 will be reported as capital gain, while $8,000 will be reported as ordinary gain.

8 0
3 years ago
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