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vovangra [49]
3 years ago
9

Order the following numbers from least to greatest.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vladimir [108]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

-2,1,4,5

Step-by-step explanation:

Volgvan3 years ago
5 0
-2, 1, 4, 5
hope that helps!
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Factor the following polynomial completely. Start by getting the GCF of the polynomial. 2x^3-18x
Vesna [10]

Answer:

GCF: 2x

Factored: 2x(x+3)(x-3)

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
You move down 1 units and up 2 units. You end at (-3,1). Where did you start? On a number graph 1 through 5 axis graph
Roman55 [17]

Let's do it step by step:

First we need to understand that moving upwards would be addition to y-coordinates, while moving downwards would be deduction to the y-coordinates.

Moving to rightwards would be addition to x-coordinates and leftwards would be deduction to x-coordinates.

As we moved down by 1 unit and up for 2 units, it means that we are originally upward for one unit and downward by 2 units, which makes downwards for 1 units and would be -1 to the y-coordinates:

(-3,1 -1)

=(-3,0)

Therefore the start would be (-3,0).

Hope it  helps!


6 0
3 years ago
What would the equation be for the points (0,-2) and (2,6) be? (SLOPE INTERCEPT FORM y=mx+b)
Paladinen [302]

Answer:

Slope m=4

Step-by-step explanation:

m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

We have A(0,-2)->x1=0, y1=-2

B(2,6)->x2=2, y2=6

7 0
1 year ago
8. A company makes electronic components for TV's. 95% pass final inspection (and 5% fail and need to be fixed). 120 components
Taya2010 [7]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that the variance of the number that pass inspection in one day is 5.7.

For each component, there are only two possible outcomes, either it passes inspection, or it does not. The probability of a component passing inspections is independent of any other component, hence, the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u>, and has variance given by:

V(X) = np(1 - p)

In this problem:

  • 95% pass final inspection, hence p = 0.95
  • 120 components are inspected in one day, hence n = 120.

The variance is given by:

V(X) = np(1 - p) = 120(0.95)(0.05) = 5.7

The variance of the number that pass inspection in one day is 5.7.

To learn more about the binomial distribution, you can take a look at brainly.com/question/24863377

3 0
2 years ago
How do I add -6 and positive 13
Svetach [21]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

This operation is identical to subtracting 6 from 13.  The correct result is 7.

6 0
3 years ago
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