A) the probability it is brown would be 50%; the probability it is yellow or blue would be 35%; the probability it is not green is 95%; the probability it is striped is 0%.
B) the probability of all brown would be 12.5%; the probability that the third one is the first red one drawn is 8.1%; the probability that none are yellow is 61.4%; the probability that at least one is green is 14.3%.
Explanation:
A) The probability that it is brown is the percentage of brown we have. Brown is not listed, so we subtract what we are given from 100%:
100-(15+10+20+5) = 100-(50) = 50%. The probability that one drawn is yellow or blue would be the two percentages added together: 15+20 = 35%. The probability that it is not green would be the percentage of green subtracted from 100: 100-5=95%. Since there are no striped candies listed, the probability is 0%.
B) Since we have an infinite supply of candy, we will treat these as independent events. All 3 being brown is found by taking the probability that one is brown and multiplying it 3 times:
0.5*0.5*0.5 = 0.125 = 12.5%.
To find the probability that the first one that is red is the third one drawn, we take the probability that it is NOT red, 100-10 = 90% = 0.9, for the first two, and the probability that it IS red, 10% = 0.1, for the last:
0.9*0.9*0.1 = 0.081 = 8.1%.
The probability that none are yellow is found by raising the probability that the first one is not yellow, 100-15=85%=0.85, to the third power:
0.85^3 = 0.614 = 61.4%.
The probability that at least one is green is computed by subtracting 1-(probability of no green). We first find the probability that all three are NOT green:
0.95^3 = 0.857375
1-0.857375 = 0.143 = 14.3%.
Answer:
-3,3
Step-by-step explanation:
the line reaches at the point -3 at the bootem and the top reaches 3 so how i know it would be 3 ,-3 bc the 3 is at the top and -3 is at the bottem
Complete question:
Assume that different groups of couples use a particular method of gender selection and each couple gives birth to one baby this mention is designed to increase the likelihood that each baby will be a girl, but assume that the method has no effect so the probability of a girl is 0.5. Assume that the group consists of 36 couples.
A) Find the mean and standard deviation for the number of girls in groups of 36 births.
B) Use the range rule of thumb to find the values separating results that are significantly low and significantly high.
C) Is the result of 33 girls significantly high? A result of 33 girls would suggest the method is effective or is not effective?
Answer:
a) mean = 18
Standard deviation =3
b) low range = 12
High range = 24
c) The result of 33 girls is significantly high. Yes, the method is effective.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:
p = 0.5
n = 36
a) The mean is the product of n and p
Mean u = np
u = 36 * 0.5 = 18
The standard deviation is the square root of the product of n and p&q.
S.d ó = 
b) To find the range rule of thumb:
• For low range
Low range = u - 2ó
= 18 - (2 * 3)
= 12
• High range
= u + 2ó
= 18 + (2*3)
= 24
c) The result is significantly high, because 33 is greater than 24 girls.
A result of 33 girls would prove the method as effective.
Answer:
idek but i get free points hehe
Step-by-step explanation:
List the hours from 1 to 8
Multiply the hours by how much she is paid per hour ( $12)
X: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
y: 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96
