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inessss [21]
3 years ago
12

On November 1, 2015, Lendem, Inc. loaned an employee $100,000 at 6% with both the interest and principal due in one year. The ad

justing entry to record the interest earned but not received as of December 31, 2015 includes a: A. debit to Interest Receivable of $1,000 B. debit to Interest Revenue of $1,000 C. debit to Interest Payable of $6,000 D. debit to Cash of $5,000 E. debit to Interest Receivable of $6,000
Business
1 answer:
Finger [1]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. debit to Interest Receivable of $1,000

Explanation:

The journal entry is given below;

Interest Receivables ($100,000 × 6% × 2 ÷ 12) $1,000.00  

             To Interest Revenue  $1,000.00

(being the interest earned but not received is recorded)

Here the interest receivable is debited as it increased the assets and credited the interest revenue as it also increased the revenue

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variable pricing

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1. Which of the following is a benefit of channels of distribution:
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2 years ago
The Investments Fund sells Class A shares with a front-end load of 5% and Class B shares with 12b-1 fees of 0.75% annually as we
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

The responses to the given choices can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

Assume is the investment. Each original Class A investment is of the net-front unburden. The portfolio will be worth four years from now:  

\$1,000 \times 5\% = \$50 =\$1,000 - \$50 = \$950\\\\         \$950 (1 + 0.13)^4 = \$950 (1.13)^4 = \$950 (1.630474) = \$1,548.95\\\\  

You will place the total of \$1,000 on class B shares, but only 12b-1will be paid (13-0.75 = 12.25) at a rate of 12.25\% and you'll pay a 1\%back-end load charge if you sell for a four-year period.

After 4 years, your portfolio worth would be:      

\$1,000 (1 + 0.1225)^4 = \$1,437.66   \\\\      \$1,000 (1.1225)^4 = \$1000 (1.587616) = \$ 1,587.62  

Their portfolio worth would be: after charging the backend load fee:      

\$1,587.616 \times 0.99 = \$1,571.74   \\\\                     Amounts     \\\\     Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,548.95\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,571.74 \\\\

When the horizon is four years, class B shares are also the best option.

Class A shares would value from a 12-year time frame:

\$950 (1.13)^{12} = \$950 (4.334523) = \$4,117.80  \\\\

In this case, no back-end load is required for Class B securities as the horizon is larger than 5 years.

Its value of the class B shares, therefore, is as follows:

\$1,000 (1.1225) 12 = \$1,000 (4.001623) = \$4,001.62 \\\\Amounts    \\\\\      Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 4,117.80\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \   4,001.62\\\\

Class B shares aren't any longer a valid option in this, prolonged duration. Its impact on class B fees of 0.75\%\ \ 12b-1cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the 5\% the burden of class A shareholders.

4 0
3 years ago
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