Answer:
Direct material price variance =$10,160 unfavorable
Explanation:
<em>Direct material price variance occurs when the actual quantity of materials are purchased at an actual price per unit higher or lower than the standard price.</em>
Direct material price variance $
50,800 pounds should have cost (50,800× $2) = 101,600
but did cost (50,800× $2.20) = <u> 111,760</u>
Direct material price variance <u> 10,160 unfavorable</u>
Direct material price variance =$10,160 unfavorable
Answer:
The correct answer is "assistive technology"
Explanation:
The term Assistive technology refers to any piece of equipment, software program, or product used to increase or improve the functional capabilities of persons.
<span>Determining the magnitude of possible losses from a premature death can be complicated. The best method is the <u>needs-based approach.</u>
<u />When it comes to this approach, you are appealing to the immediate needs of the people who are left behind when their loved one dies prematurely. You want to help them by providing them with everything they may need in order to deal with their loss.
</span>
Answer:
Freecia has a comparative advantage in producing memory chips
Explanation:
Comparative advantage occurs when a company has an advantage over the other through the production of certain goods at a cheaper rate.
Looking at the given example , let us assume that the cost of producing a bushel of rice is $10 and memory chips is $10
Warmia produces two bushels of rice at $70 and a memory chip at $70(ratio 2:1) 1/3*70= 23.3
Freecia produces five bushels of rice at $70 and two memory chips at $7
(Ratio 5:2). 2/7*70=14
We can see that the cost of producing memory chips is cheaper fo Freecia
Answer:The cost of capital that will make both investments equal is 17.045%
Explanation:
Investment A
$1.5 million will be received in perpetuity we can there use perpetuity formula to Value investment A.
Value of Investment A = 1500 000/r
Investment B
$1.2 Million will be received in Investment B with a growth rate of 3% will then use Gordon's growth rate model to value investment B.
Value of investment B = (1200 000 x (1+0.03))/(r - 0.03)
Value of investment B = 1236000/(r - 0.03)
1500 000/r = 1236000/(r - 0.03)
1236000(r) = 1500000(r - 0.03)
(r - 0.03) = 1236000( r)/1500000
r - 0.03 = 0.824r
r - 0.824r = 0.03 = 0.176r = 0.03
r = 0.03/0.176 = 0.170454545
R = 17.045%
The cost of capital that will make both investments to be equal is 17.045%
