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Marina86 [1]
3 years ago
5

What is the geometric mean of 32 and 40

Mathematics
1 answer:
Snezhnost [94]3 years ago
7 0
Geometric mean: 35.77708764
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Please help me! I will make you as the best answer
Alexandra [31]

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a rectangle is length*width. So, 200=8(1/2x+5). Dividing by 8, 25=1/2x+5. Subtracting 5, 20=1/2x, multiplying by 2, 40=x.

6 0
3 years ago
A coin is flipped five times. Find the number of possible sets of heads and tails that have 0 heads.
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

I think it’s C

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Bir kırtasiyeci aldığı kalemlerin tanesini
andrew11 [14]

Answer: Option B: 120.

Step-by-step explanation:

I will answer in English

This problem can be translated to:

A man bought N pens, (at a cost C) if he sells each pen at 2 lira, he will have a profit of 40 lira.

If he sells each pen at 1.5 lira, he will loss a total of 20 lira.

We want to find N, the number of pens that he bought.

if he sells the N pens at 2 lira each, the revenue is:

N*2 lira

And the profit is the difference between the revenue and the cost, then the profit (40 lira in this case) is:

N*2 lira - C = 40 lira.

When he sells each pen at 1.5 lira the equation is:

N*(1.5 lira) - C = -20 lira.

Then we have two equations:

N*2 lira - C = 40 lira.

N*(1.5 lira) - C = -20 lira.

To solve this we need to isolate the variable C in one of the equations, i will isolate C in the second equation:

N*(1.5 lira) + 20 lira = C.

Now we can replace this in the first equation to get:

N*(2 lira) - (N*(1.5 lira) + 20 lira) = 40 lira.

We can solve this for N.

N*(2 lira) - N*(1.5 lira) - 20 lira = 40 lira

N*(2 lira - 1.5 lira) = 60 lira

N*(0.5 lira) = 60 lira

N = (60lira/0.5lira) = 120

N = 120

This means that he bought 120 pens.

The correct option is B.

3 0
2 years ago
Write twelve and five hundred ninety nine thousandths in standard form
stellarik [79]
12.599
Hope this helps!
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What fraction of 6 weeks is 6 days​
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

\frac{1}{7}

Step-by-step explanation:

6 weeks is 42 days.

6 days/42 days = 1/7

6 0
1 year ago
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