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babunello [35]
2 years ago
14

Which of the following is not a reason for passing the equal pay act of 1963​

Business
1 answer:
VLD [36.1K]2 years ago
3 0
Show the reasons plssss
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Abc company, which is headquartered in the united states, has production plants in mexico and vietnam. according to this informa
Eduardwww [97]

a multinational enterprise

5 0
3 years ago
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Quinton wants you to calculate his biweekly paycheck. How much would he earn each pay period if he has an annual salary of $55,5
koban [17]
$2,134.62.

There are approximately 52 weeks in a given year, meaning that there are 52/2, or 26, biweekly pay periods. Therefore, we divide the annual salary of $55,500 by 26 biweekly pay periods to get $2,134.62 for the biweekly paycheck. 

The formula is the annual amount divided by the number of periods. Here, there are 26 periods of biweekly (once every two weeks) paychecks. 
6 0
3 years ago
To make sure that a manufacturing process meets the acceptable standards and procedures is quality
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

ASSURANCE should go in the blank.

8 0
3 years ago
In an economy, the government wants to increase aggregate demand by $50 billion at each price level to increase real GDP and red
Tems11 [23]

Answer:

(B) $20 billion

Explanation:

Given a certain level of MPC, an increase in government spending (G) by a certain amount translates to an increase in aggregate demand (AD) through the relationship below.

ΔAD = \frac{ΔG}{1 - MPC}

where Δ means <em>change.</em>

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Therefore, given ΔAD of $50 billion, and MPC of 0.6,

ΔAD = \frac{ΔG}{1 - MPC}

= 50 = \frac{ΔG}{1 - 0.6}

= 50 = \frac{ΔG}{0.4}

= ΔG = 50 * 0.4 = 20

Therefore, increase in government purchases = $20 billion.

3 0
3 years ago
The Reynolds Corporation buys from its suppliers on terms of 2/19, net 50. Reynolds has not been utilizing the discounts offered
harina [27]

Answer:

23.68%

Explanation:

The computation of the cost of not taking a cash discount is shown below:-

Cost of not taking a cash discount = [Discount percentage ÷ (100% - Disc.%)] × (360 ÷ (Final due date - Discount period))

= (2% ÷ 98%) × (360 ÷ (50 - 19))

= 2.04% × 11.61

= 23.68%

Therefore for computing the cost of not taking a cash discount we simply applied the above formula.

4 0
3 years ago
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