Answer:
The answer is B 300 sq. ft.
Step-by-step explanation:
If you multiply 15 by 2 you were to get 30 but since it is 15 multiplied by 20 instead its like adding a 0 at the end of the number so we change 30 to 300.
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
16.27
Step-by-step explanation:
if 1000m rep 1km
therefore :
58.6km/h in ms = 58.6km×1000/3600
=16.277 ms
Answer:
The model is shown in the attached picture. The solution is 10.
Step-by-step explanation:
There are two way of showing a model for 2×5
- The tape diagram has 2 equal-sized parts of 5
- The tape diagram has 5 equal-sized parts of 2
Both models give the same solution:
- 5+5=10
- 2+2+2+2+2=10
In the attached picture we can show two types of diagram.
Answer:
27 miles in the morning and 85 miles in the afternoon.
Explanation:
Let m be the number of miles they rode in the morning. They rode 4 more than 3 times this many in the afternoon; this gives us the expression
3m+4
to represent the miles ridden in the afternoon.
Together they rode 112 miles; this means we add the morning miles, m, to the afternoon miles, 3m+4, and get 112:
m+3m+4 = 112
Combine like terms:
4m+4 = 112
Subtract 4 from each side:
4m+4-4= 112-4
4m = 108
Divide both sides by 4:
4m/4 = 108/4
m = 27
They rode 27 miles in the morning.
That means in the afternoon, they rode
3m+4 = 3(27)+4 = 81+4 = 85 miles.
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