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Flauer [41]
3 years ago
8

Which shaded grid represents 44%

Mathematics
2 answers:
stira [4]3 years ago
7 0

the 2nd one

plz give brainliest!

Galina-37 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: third one

Step-by-step explanation:

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A store sells a package of comic books with a poster. A poster and three comic books cost $10.50. A poster and 12 comics cost $1
NikAS [45]

answer:

there you goooo

Explanation

4 0
3 years ago
Help asap!!!!!!!
azamat

Answer:

C and D

Step-by-step explanation:

So from the equation <em>y = 1.26x + 9.49</em>  we can gather that <em>9.49</em> is an initial value because it has to be added to the number with a variable <em>( 1.26x)</em>

Because <em>1.26</em>  has a variable of <em>x  </em>and x represents a week, we know that the number<em> 1.26 </em>will increases in value depending on how many weeks have passed.

7 0
3 years ago
Restless Leg Syndrome and Fibromyalgia
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

The probability that a person with restless leg syndrome has fibromyalgia is 0.1833.

Step-by-step explanation:

Denote the events as follows:

<em>F</em> = a person with fibromyalgia

<em>R</em> = a person having restless leg syndrome

The information provided is as follows:

P (R | F) = 0.33

P (R | F') = 0.03

P (F) = 0.02

Consider the tree diagram attached below.

Compute the probability that a person with restless leg syndrome has fibromyalgia as follows:

P(F|R)=\frac{P(R|F)P(F)}{P(R|F)P(F)+P(R|F')P(F')}\\\\=\frac{(0.33\times 0.02)}{(0.33\times 0.02)+(0.03\times 0.98)}\\\\=0.183333\\\\\approx 0.1833

Thus, the probability that a person with restless leg syndrome has fibromyalgia is 0.1833.

6 0
3 years ago
Would appreciate the help ! ​
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

This is one pathway to prove the identity.

Part 1

\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\frac{1}{\tan(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\cot(\theta) = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\frac{\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)*\sin(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}-\frac{\cos(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\

Part 2

\frac{\sin^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}-\frac{\cos(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-(\cos(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta))}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\

Part 3

\frac{\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)-\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{1-\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{1}{\sin(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)} \ \ {\checkmark}\\\\

As the steps above show, the goal is to get both sides be the same identical expression. You should only work with one side to transform it into the other. In this case, the left side transforms while the right side stays fixed the entire time. The general rule is that you should convert the more complicated expression into a simpler form.

We use other previously established or proven trig identities to work through the steps. For example, I used the pythagorean identity \sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta) = 1 in the second to last step. I broke the steps into three parts to hopefully make it more manageable.

3 0
3 years ago
Compare the ratios in Table 1 and Table 2.
Grace [21]

Answer:

3:5 is less tan 7:10

The ratio 14:20 is greater than the ratio 9:15.

The ratios in Table 1 are less than the ratios in Table 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

3:5 as a fraction is 6/10

7:10 as a fraction is 7/10

3:5 is less

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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