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Evgesh-ka [11]
3 years ago
15

GDP data (billions of dollars)

Business
1 answer:
vichka [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

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Charisma, Inc., has debt outstanding with a face value of $6 million. The value of the firm if it were entirely financed by equi
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

$660,000

Explanation:

According to M & M proportion I with taxes, the value of the levered firm is:

V (Firm) = V (Equity) + V (Debt)

             = $28,400,000 + 0.25(6,000,000)

             = $28,400,000 + $1,500,000

             = $29,900,000

Total market value of the firm:

= Market value of the debt + Market value of equity

= $6,000,000 + stock outstanding × Selling price per share

= $6,000,000 + 415,000 × $56 per share

= $29,240,000

With non-marketed claims, such as bankruptcy costs, we would expect the two values to be the same.

The differences are the non-marketed claims:

Expected bankruptcy costs = $29,900,000 - $29,240,000

                                              = $660,000

4 0
3 years ago
• Land
Dafna1 [17]
B. I hope this helps.
8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following marketing variables is concerned with design, quality,
Daniel [21]

Answer:

A. Product APEX

Explanation:

This is the correct answer.

3 0
3 years ago
an investor has $50000 that she wishes to invest for her child's college expenses, which the child starts next year. The most su
dezoksy [38]

The investment option that the client should go with to pay the child's college expenses is a. treasury bills.

<h3 /><h3>Why should treasury bills be used?</h3>

Treasury bills have a short term lifespan of less than a year which means that they mature in a short period of time.

The investor can invest in treasury bills and be able to access them by the time the child starts in school the next year.

Options for the question are:

a. treasury bills

b. intermediate-term bonds maturing in 5 years

c. long-term bonds of blue chip companies maturing n 10-30 years

d. a mutual fund based on the S&P 500 index

Find out more on treasury bills at brainly.com/question/14604863

#SPJ1

3 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
The CAPM is built on historic conditions, although in most cases we use expected future data in applying it. Because betas used
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The reason is that the betas are calculated using the past data which means that the Capital asset pricing model solely rely on the past data which is not the strength of the CAPM. It is basically a weakness of the model so the statement is incorrect.

4 0
3 years ago
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