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sdas [7]
3 years ago
15

Use what you know about the angle sum theorem for triangles and your algebra skills to solve for x and find the measure of all t

hree angles:

Mathematics
1 answer:
melomori [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

2x° = 45°, 3x° = 67.5°

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum of angles in a triangle = 180°

2x+3x+3x=180°

8x=180°

x=22.5°

2x=22.5°x2=45°

3x=22.5°x3=67.5°

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Nana76 [90]

Answer:

Domain: {-1,-2,-3,-4}

Range: {4,5}

Step-by-step explanation:

As the range has repeated numbers, you don't have to repeat them.

8 0
3 years ago
2. A machine burns m gallons of oil each hour on weekends and ngallons each hour on weekdays. How many gallons of oil are burned
Lynna [10]

The question says the machine uses up m gallons of oil each hour on weekends.

This means that if the machine works for 24 hours each day, it implies that:

\text{Total amount of oil used up in a day = 24}\times m=24m

There are only two days on weekends i.e. Saturday and Sunday.

This means that if the amount of oil used in 1 day in the weekend is 24m, then we can say:

Saturday: oil used is 24m

Sunday: oil used is 24m

Total oil used during the weekend is:

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4 0
1 year ago
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
0.08=2q one step equation
Elina [12.6K]
Divide both sides by 2

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3 years ago
Function not a function ?
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

not a function

Step-by-step explanation:

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