Answer: The formula is (b1 + b2)h+PH
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
x^2+1/x^2
(x+1/x)^2 = x^2+1/x^2 +2
(5)^2 = x^2+1/x^2 + 2
25 = x^2+1/x^2 + 2
25-2 = x^2+1/x^2
23 = x^2+1/x^2
Step-by-step explanation:
When ever you have percentages, it should be helpful to bear in mind you can express them as multipliers. In this case, it will be helpful.
So, if we let:
a = test score
b = target score
then, using the information given:
a = 1.1b + 1
a = 1.15b - 3
and we get simultaneous equations.
'1.1' and '1.15' are the multipliers that I got using the percentages. Multiplying a value by 1.1 is the equivalent of increasing the value by 10%. If you multiplied it by 0.1 (which is the same as dividing by 10), you would get just 10% of the value.
Back to the simultaneous equations, we can just solve them now:
There are a number of ways to do this but I will use my preferred method:
Rearrange to express in terms of b:
a = 1.1b + 1
then b = (a - 1)/1.1
a = 1.15b - 3
then b = (a + 3)/1.15
Since they are both equal to b, they are of the same value so we can set them equal to each other and solve for a:
(a - 1)/1.1 = (a + 3)/1.15
1.15 * (a - 1) = 1.1 * (a + 3)
1.15a - 1.15 = 1.1a + 3.3
0.05a = 4.45
a = 89
To compare the numbers, go from left to right examining the numbers carefully. so look at a., 3.7 can be written as 3.700, if u look, 3 and 0, it is definetly bigger than 0.01 and 0.001
Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
