Answer :
0.53
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the following :
Probability of female = probability of success on a single trial = 0.51
Number of babies = 80
Probability that more than half of the babies are female : p(X >80/2) = P(X > 40)
The problem can be solved using the binomial probability function :
P(X > 40) = [ p(X= 41) + p(X= 42) +.... +p(X= 80)]
In other to save computation time, we can use the binomial probability calculator
Hence ; P(X > 40) = 0.527 = 0.53
Answer:
The answer is
<h2>20 + 56i</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
(2 -10i) (-5 + 3i)
Using FOIL multiply each term in the first bracket by the terms in the second <u>bracket</u>
That's
2(-5) + 2(3i) - 10i(-5) - 10i(3i)
<u>Multiply the numbers and simplify</u>
We have
- 10 + 6i + 50i - 30i²
From the rules of imaginary numbers
<h3>i² = - 1</h3>
So we have
- 10 + 56i - 30(- 1)
- 10 + 56i + 30
Simplify
30 - 10 + 56i
We have the final answer as
<h3>20 + 56i</h3>
Hope this helps you
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
43/24
or
1 19/24
Answer:
V = 65.548 cm³
Step-by-step explanation:
We have,
Volume of a ball is 4 cubic inches or 
.
We know that, 1 inch = 2.54 cm
It is required to convert this volume to cubic centimetre or 
.
So, the volume of the ball is 65.548 cm³.
The answer will be t=2.50g I think
