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MrRissso [65]
3 years ago
13

A 50-year-old patient presents for evaluation of recurrent swelling of his right leg. He had a prior common femoral vein DVT in

the same leg 10 years ago, which resolved following anticoagulation. Upon ultrasound inspection, the common femoral vein does not fully collapse, no discrete thrombus is visualized, and the transverse diameter of the common femoral vein is increased by 6 mm as compared to his prior scan taken at the time of his original diagnosis. Based on these exam findings, what is the most appropriate next intervention
Medicine
1 answer:
Alborosie3 years ago
3 0

Inform the patient he has a recurrent DVT and initiate discussion regarding risks versus benefits of anticoagulation therapy

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